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Alexus [3.1K]
3 years ago
5

Janet is mixing a 15% glucose solution with a 35% glucose solution. This mixture produces 35 liters of a 19% glucose solution. H

ow many liters of the 15% solution is Januet using in the mixture?
Mathematics
2 answers:
dybincka [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:C on edge:)

Step-by-step explanation:

avanturin [10]3 years ago
6 0
Multiply thru by 100 to get:
15x + 35*35 - 35x = 19*35
-20x = -16*35
x = 28 liters (amount of 15% glucose needed in the mixture)
<span>35-x = 35-28 = 5 liters (amount of 35% glucose needed in the mixture) </span>
Hope this helps.. :)
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Step-by-step explanation:

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The cost of a bag of chips in a vending machine is $0.85. The cost of a Gatorade in the same machine is $1.50. Kennedy spent $23
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A bag of chip  = 0.85, let a bag of chip be x
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3 years ago
Solve the answer <br> 6p - 1 - 4p = 15?
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Answer:

A. P=0.4013

B. P=0.9884

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Step-by-step explanation:

We can model this with a binomial random variable.

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The probability is p=0.05 for scrap and p=0.05+0.15=0.20 for degraded or scrap.

The probability of having k scrap gears in the sample is:

P(x=k) = \dbinom{n}{k} p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}\\\\\\P(x=k) = \dbinom{10}{k} 0.05^{k} 0.95^{10-k}\\\\\\

The probability that one or more is scrap can be calculated as 100% less the probability that no one is scrap:

P(x\geq1)=1-P(x=0)\\\\\\P(x=0) = \dbinom{10}{0} p^{0}(1-p)^{10}=1*1*0.5987=0.5987\\\\\\P(x\geq1)=1-0.5987=0.4013

The probability that 8 or more are not scrap is equal to the probability of having 2 or less that are scrap:

P(x\leq2)=P(x=0)+P(x=1)+P(x=2)\\\\\\P(x=0) = \dbinom{10}{0} p^{0}(1-p)^{10}=1*1*0.5987=0.5987\\\\\\P(x=1) = \dbinom{10}{1} p^{1}(1-p)^{9}=10*0.05*0.6302=0.3151\\\\\\P(x=2) = \dbinom{10}{2} p^{2}(1-p)^{8}=45*0.0025*0.6634=0.0746\\\\\\P(x\leq2)=0.5987+0.3151+0.0746=0.9884

The probability that more than two are degraded or scrap (p=0.2) is calculated as:

P(x>2)=1-P(x\leq2)=1-(P(x=0)+P(x=1)+P(x=2))\\\\\\P(x=0) = \dbinom{10}{0} p^{0}(1-p)^{10}=1*1*0.1074=0.1074\\\\\\P(x=1) = \dbinom{10}{1} p^{1}(1-p)^{9}=10*0.2*0.1342=0.2684\\\\\\P(x=2) = \dbinom{10}{2} p^{2}(1-p)^{8}=45*0.04*0.1678=0.3020\\\\\\P(x>2)=1-(0.1074+0.2684+0.3020)=1-0.6778=0.3222

4 0
3 years ago
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