Answer:
John should opt for the 30 annual end-of-the-year payments of $4 million as that gives the highest present of value of $49,636,164.73 as shown below.
Explanation:
The options are evaluated as follows:
Option 1 $46,000,0000 today
Option 2
The present of value of this option is calculated using the below formula:
Present value of annuity = ((1-(1/((1+i)^n))/i) X PMT
where i=rate=7%
n=10years
PMT=$7m
PV=((1-(1/((1+0.07)^10))/0.07) X 7000000
PV=$ 43,834,929.21
Option 3
The present value of this option using the formula in option 2 is:
PV=((1-(1/((1+0.07)^30))/0.07) X 4000000
PV=$49,636,164.73
Hence, the last option is preferable.
B. 0.5% - 2% based on average tax return rates in the US
Answer:
Statement # 1: False
Statement # 2: True
Statement # 3: False
Statement # 4: True
Explanation:
Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.
Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.
Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.
Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.
Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.
Answer: decrease
Explanation:
The money multiplier is the amount of money generated by banks with each dollar of reserves. The reserves is the amount of deposits which the Federal Reserve wants banks not to lend but rather hold. The money multiplier is therefore the ratio of deposits to the reserves in the banking system.
The money multiplier shows the ratio of the increase or decrease in money supply in relation to the increase or decrease in deposits. During the Christmas period, people draw lots of money out of their accounts to buy presents and other things. This will lead to a decrease in the money multiplier.
Answer:
d). The lessee must increase the present value of the minimum lease payments by the present value of the option price.
Explanation:
The bargain purchase option refers to the clause mention in a lease contract or agreement which provides the lessee 
or buy a leased asset from a person at the end of the 
at a price which is substantially below its 
.
In bargain purchase option, the present value of a 
can be increased by bargain purchase option. So the lessee must 
the present value of by the present value of the 
This is the impact of the bargain purchase option on the present value of .
Thus, the correct option is (d).
