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Dmitrij [34]
3 years ago
13

Consider the following information for Evenflow Power Co., Debt: 5,000 6.5 percent coupon bonds outstanding, $1,000 par value, 1

7 years to maturity, selling for 102 percent of par; the bonds make semiannual payments. Common stock: 105,000 shares outstanding, selling for $59 per share; the beta is 1.17. Preferred stock: 18,000 shares of 6 percent preferred stock outstanding, currently selling for $105 per share. Market: 8.5 percent market risk premium and 5 percent risk-free rate. Assume the company's tax rate is 34 percent. What is the company's WACC?
Business
1 answer:
melamori03 [73]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

Explanation:

We solve for the cost of debt by solving for the discount rate which makes the future coupon payment and maturity of the bond equal to 1,020

This is solved using excel or a financial calculator

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 32.50

time 34

<em>rate 0.03153274</em>

32.5 \times \frac{1-(1+0.03153274)^{-34} }{0.0315327401919093} = PV\\

PV $672.0015

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   1,000.00

time   34.00

<em> rate  0.03153274</em>

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.03153274)^{34} } = PV  

PV   348.00

PV c $672.0015

PV m  $347.9985

Total $1,020.0000

<u>annual cost of debt:</u>

0.031532 x 2 = 0.063064 = 6.31%

<u>debt outstanding:</u>

5,000 bonds x $ 1,000  x 102/100 = 5,100,000

<u>equity</u>:

105,000 shares x $59 each = 6,195,000

For  the equity we solve using CAMP

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.09

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.085

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.17

Ke= 0.05 + 1.17 (0.085)

<u>Ke 0.14945</u>

Now we solve for the WACC

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

D  5,100,000

E  6,195,000

V  11,295,000

Equity weight 0.5485

Debt Weight 0.4515

Ke 0.14945

Kd 0.0631

t 0.34

WACC = 0.14945(0.5485) + 0.0631(1-0.34)(0.4515)

<em>WACC 10.07765%</em>

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Cash flow in year 0 = $-58,500

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PI = 1 + $2,772.72 / $58,500 = 1.04

The project will not be approved because the PI is less than the amount of return the boss wants even though the IRR is less than the discount rate

To find the NPV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

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Now, the additional cost incurred in dollars when production is increased from 100 units to 150 units will be:-

\int^{150}_{100}\ C'(x)\ dx\\\\=\int^{150}_{100} (4000-0.4x)\ dx\\\\=[4000x-\dfrac{0.4x^2}{2}]^{150}_{100}\\\\=[4000(150)-\dfrac{0.4(150)^2}{2}-4000(100)+\dfrac{0.4(100)^2}{2}]\\\\=[600000-4500-400000+2000]\\\\=197500

Hence, the additional cost incurred in dollars when production is increased from 100 units to 150 units= $197,500

Similarly,  the additional cost incurred in dollars when production is increased from 500 units to 550 units :-

\int^{550}_{500}\ C'(x)\ dx\\\\=\int^{550}_{500} (4000-0.4x)\ dx\\\\=[4000x-\dfrac{0.4x^2}{2}]^{550}_{500}\\\\=[4000(550)-\dfrac{0.4(550)^2}{2}-4000(500)+\dfrac{0.4(500)^2}{2}]\\\\=[2200000-60500-2000000+50000]\\\\=189,500

Hence, the additional cost incurred in dollars when production is increased from 500 units to 550 units = $ 189,500

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