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Juli2301 [7.4K]
3 years ago
12

Which option would you select to control being linked to other people's posts?

Business
1 answer:
s2008m [1.1K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Timeline and tagging settings

Explanation:

Timeline and tagging settings is a feature in social media applications such as Face-book, Twi-tter, Insta-gram etc. that allows you to control being linked to other people's posts.

When this settings is properly configured, you will only be linked to the posts of people you allowed, in this case it will be your mutual friends rather than the general public.

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In a SWOT analysis, potential internal weaknesses are harmful when they identify all key areas that require improvement. Weaknes
MissTica

Answer:

That statement is true.

Explanation:

"Key areas" of the business refers to business activities that directly related in core business operation. These activities are the one with most influence in determining how much products the companies able to sell to the consumers.

Internal weakness in SWOT analysis refers to  consist of the things from within the company that can create some sort of damage to the company's operation if not taken care of.

Leaving internal weakness unfixed with heavily damage the productivity of company. Not only that, it could also damage the market's perception toward the company. When the customers have completely lost faith in the quality of company's product, there is almost nothing the company can do to fix it.

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3 years ago
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In PowerPoint, where do you enter data for a chart?
sammy [17]
The answer is b. In a table that is provided
8 0
3 years ago
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When we express the value of a cash flow or series of cash flows in terms of dollars today, we call it the ________ of the inves
vekshin1

Answer:

Present value

Future value

Explanation:

Present value is the value of cashflows discounted at interest rate at arrive at its value today.

Future value is the value of cashflows discounted at interest rate at arrive at its value at some given time in the future.

I hope my answer helps you

8 0
3 years ago
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Nash Co. sells $435,000 of 12% bonds on June 1, 2020. The bonds pay interest on December 1 and June 1. The due date of the bonds
garri49 [273]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccccc}\\ &&$Carrying Value&$Cash&$Int. exp&$Amortization&$E.Carrying\\& 1&493574.88&26100&19743&6357&487217.88\\& 2&487217.88&26100&19488.72&6611.28&480606.6\\& 3&480606.6&26100&19224.26&6875.74&473730.86\\& 4&473730.86&26100&18949.23&7150.77&466580.09\\& 5&466580.09&26100&18663.2&7436.8&459143.29\\& 6&459143.29&26100&18365.73&7734.27&451409.02\\& 7&451409.02&26100&18056.36&8043.64&443365.38\\& 8&443365.38&26100&17734.62&8365.38&435000\\\end{array}\right]

<u>Journal entries:</u>

cash       493,574.88 debit

 bonds payable   435,000.00 credit

 premium on bp     58,574.88 credit

--to record issuance--

Interest expense 19743

Amortization 6357

cash 26100

--to record Dec 31st, 2020--

Interest expense 19488.72

Amortization 6611.28

cash 26100

--to record June 30th, 2021--

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

--to record redemption--

premium on BP      4,813.04 debit

interest expense  13,456.96 debit

        cash                         18,270 credit

-- to record December 31st, 2021--

Explanation:

First, we solve for the proceeds from the bonds payable:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 26,100 (435,000 x 12% / 2)

time 8 ( 4 years x 2)

yield to maturity  0.04 ( 8% / 2)

26100 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-8} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $175,724.6412

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   435,000.00

time   8.00

rate  0.04

\frac{435000}{(1 + 0.04)^{8} } = PV  

PV   317,850.24

PV c $175,724.6412

PV m  $317,850.2392

Total $493,574.8804

We now build the amortization schedule.

We take this value, we multiply by the interest rate and then, solve for amortization and ending carrying value.

<u>To record the redemption:</u>

accrued interest:

435,000 x 0.12 x 4/12 (months from June to oct) = 17,400

premium:

480,606.6 - 435,000 = 45,606.6

proportional of premium:

45,606 / 435,000 x 130,500 = 13.681,98

we now solve for the gain/loss on redemption:

130,500 + 13,681.98 + 17,400 = 161.581,9 value redeem

                                      for cash 136,500

gain on redemption 25.081,98

bonds payable    130,500.00 debit

premium on bp       13,681.98 debit

interest expense    17,400.00 debit

      gain on redemption           25,081.98 credit

       cash                                 136,500.00 credit

Now, we solve for Dec 31st, 2021 entry.

bonds payable: 435,000 - 130,500 = 304,500

premium: 45,606 - 13,681.98 = 31.924,02

interest expense:

(304,500 + 31,924.02) x 0.04 = 13,456.96

cash outlay:

304,500 x 0.06 = 18,270

amortization 18,270 - 13,456.96 = 4,813.04

6 0
3 years ago
Critically discuss the economic importance of the secondary sector to the south African economy.​
LuckyWell [14K]

Wait ⚠️

This question is from quizlet

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