Keep in mind that, when the logarithm base is not explicitly written, base 10 is assumed, therefore,
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
Given that in a group of 40 people, 35% have never been abroad. Two people are selected at random without replacement and are asked about their past travel experience.
Since the two are drawn without replacement the first trial affects the second trial. In other words, each trial is not independent of the other.
a) Hence this cannot be binomial experiment. The reason is p=probability for each trial is not constant as first draw affect the probability for Ii draw
b) The probability that in a random sample of 2, no one has been abroad
=Prob of selecting both people from the group where no one has been abroad
We have in the group 35% i.e. 14 people never been to abroad
So required probability = Prob of selecting both from 14 people
=
59.95 divided by 11.99 = 5 so you can buy 5 cd's
Since this problem involves division, we are going to do the opposite of it, which is multiplication. We are going to multiply the quotient by the denominator, the answer would be correct if the answer equals the numerator.




The answer would be C!
Have a nice day! :)
<span>1. (f+g)(x) = f(x) +g(x)
.. = (</span>x^2-36) +(<span>x^3+2x^2-10)
.. = x^3 +3x^2 -46
2. </span>(f•g)(x) = f(x)•g(x)
.. = (x^4-9)•(x^3+9)
.. = x^7 +9x^4 -9x^3 -81
<span>3. (f-g)(x) = f(x) -g(x)
.. = (x^3-2x^2+12x-6) -(4x^2-6x+4)
.. = x^3 -6x^2 +18x -10</span>