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lana [24]
3 years ago
15

For what reason were political developments in south asia fundamentally different from those of southwest asia?

History
1 answer:
dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
8 0

The correct answer to this question is the letter D.

It says that South Asia had a small number of regional states and consequently had fewer oppositions that prompted ruling classes to unify their dominions.

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