Why do some words have two past tense forms (e.g. “dreamed” vs. “dreamt”)?

1 answer:

3 0

This is essentially language change at work. Do you know how Shakespeare sometimes sounds "weird" to us? that's because English has changed since then.

Language change is not abrupt, but gradual, and while the change takes place sometimes two forms are used: so while it is likely that in years to come only dreamed will be correct, and in the past only "dreamt", currently the change is not complete and both are correct.

You might be interested in

Subscribe to my channel Saltyjeon

NARA [144]

Answer:

sure ;p

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How does percy feel when he sees his mom

UkoKoshka [18]

<span>He feels happy, but he also feels worried.</span>

5 0

3 years ago

Which of the following best describes a central theme of the text?

svet-max [94.6K]

Answer:

D. Silence allows people to stay strong in different situations, even though it does have consequences.

Explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

What is Plato’s symbol for true enlightenment in "The Allegory of the Cave."

Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:the fire

Explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How does Leo Tolstoy contrast the characters of Gerasim and Ivan Ilyich in The Death of Ivan Ilyich? A. Ivan Ilyich doesn’t like

lesantik [10]

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Leo Tolstoy contrasts the characters of Gerasim and Ivan Ilyich in The Death of Ivan Ilyich by showing that Ivan Ilyich doesn’t treat Gerasim as his son, but Gerasim treats Ivan as his father.

Explanation:

Even though in several ocassions during the novella Ivan doesn't seem to treat Gerasim as his son but Geraism still continues to treat his father as such, with respect.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers