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3 years ago

14

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. If 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

1 answer:

andre [41]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

9/4 parts = 1 3/4 parts rice

Step-by-step explanation:

1.5 beans * 1.5 rice/beans = 1.75 rice or 9/4 rice

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katen-ka-za [31]

The distance between -4/12 and 9 is
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Step 1 :

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3 years ago

You had 250 minutes left on your cellphone and you talk an hour a week

hjlf

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2 years ago

What is 2+6*5/8 ? I need help with this math problem , thank you.

vampirchik [111]

Hey.

I hope that you're familiar with P.E.M.D.A.S :)

applying PEMDAS :

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3 years ago

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