Answer:

And we can conclude that with this method the depreciation each year is about 1451.454$ for the item analyzed.
And we can construct the following table:
year Depreciation Ramining value
0 X 15966
1 1451.454 14514.545
2 1451.454 13063.091
3 1451.454 11611.638
4 1451.454 10160.183
5 1451.454 8708.729
6 1451.454 7257.275
7 1451.454 5805.821
8 1451.454 4354.367
9 1451.454 2902.913
10 1451.454 1451.454
11 1451.454 0
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
Straight line depreciation is "the default method used to recognize the carrying amount of a fixed asset evenly over its useful life".
Solution for the problem
We assume that the useful life for this problem is 11 years
For this case we have the following function in terms of th years (n) and the initilal price (x)

For this case we have the following values:
represent the initial cost for a item
the year on which we want to find the depreciation
And if we replace these values into our function we got this:

And we can conclude that with this method the depreciation each year is about 1451.454$ for the item analyzed.
And we can construct the following table:
year Depreciation Ramining value
0 X 15966
1 1451.454 14514.545
2 1451.454 13063.091
3 1451.454 11611.638
4 1451.454 10160.183
5 1451.454 8708.729
6 1451.454 7257.275
7 1451.454 5805.821
8 1451.454 4354.367
9 1451.454 2902.913
10 1451.454 1451.454
11 1451.454 0
Answer:
64√2 or 64 StartRoot 2 EndRoot
Step-by-step explanation:
A 45-45-90 traingle is a special traingle. Let's say one of the leg of the triangle is x. The other one is also x because of the isosocles triangle theorem. Therefore, using the pytagorean theorem, you find that x^2+x^2=c^2. 2(x)^2=c^2. You then square root both sides and get c= x√2.
Therefore, the two legs are x and the hypotenuse is x√2. x√2=128 because the question says that the hypotenuse is 128. Solve for x by dividing both sides by √2. X=128/√2. You rationalize it by multiplying the numberator and denominator of the fraction by √2. √2*√2= 2.
X=(128√2)/2= 64√2 cm.
Since X is the leg, the answer would be 64√2
Answer:
3
Step-by-step explanation:
It owuld be 3 cuz the least significant digit would be used to determine the precision right? So it would be 3!
Answer:
There are infinite solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
Both of these equations are the exact same. 6x+2y=-4 in y=mx+b form is y = -3x - 2. This means that since they are exactly the same, there are infinite solutions.
Answer: Angles are
and 
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, the ratio of the angles formed by diagonals and the sides of the rhombus is 6:5.
Let the angles formed by diagonals and the sides of the rhombus are 6x and 5x.
Where x is any number.
Thus, By the property of rhombus,
Diagonals perpendicularly bisect each other.
Therefore, 
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 
Therefore, the angles formed by diagonals and the sides of the rhombus are
and 
⇒ The angles of rhombus are
and 