Answer:
x=1
Step-by-step explanation:
First you would do the parentheses.
So, 4 x X= 4x
4x2=8
4x+8=2x+10
subtract 2x on both sides
2x+8=10
subtract 8 from both sides
2x=2
x=1
4(x 2)=48
4x+8=48
4x=40
x=10
The pattern is to divide by 3
486 ÷ 3 = 162
162 ÷ 3 = 54
54 ÷ 3 = 18
18 ÷ 3 = 6
The next number is 6
Answer:
(B) No. A binomial probability model applies to only two outcomes per trial.
Step-by-step explanation:
The binomial probability is the probability of having
sucesses on
repeated trials of an experiment that can only have two outcomes. This is why it is called the binomial probability.
Since in our problem there are three possible outcomes, the binomial probability cannot be used.
The correct answer is (B)
(B) No. A binomial probability model applies to only two outcomes per trial.