Answer: credit to Common Stock Dividends Distributable for $43500
Explanation:
Based on the information given in the question, the entry to record the transaction of May 24 goes thus:
Debit Stock Dividend = 87000 × 5% × $16 = $69600
Credit To Common Stock Dividend Distributable = 87000 × 5% × $10 = $43500
Credit To Paid in capital in excess of Par - Common Stock = $69600 - $43500 = $26100
Answer:
The correct answer is $30 billions.
Explanation:
The checkable deposits are given as $140 billions.
The total reserves are $51 billions.
The required reserve rate is 30%.
The required reserves will be
=30% of $140 billions
=
=$42 billions
The excess reserves will be
=total reserves-required reserves
=$51-$42
=$9 billions
Maximum expansion by lending will be
=
=
=$30 billions
So, the money supply can be expanded by a maximum amount of $30 billions.
Considering the available options, the coverage that makes the most sense to eliminate is the "<u>Collision</u><u> coverage, because their car is quite old and the </u><u>deductible</u><u> is relatively high."</u>
<h3>What is Insurance Premium?</h3>
The insurance premium is the money by an individual or company to insure some specific properties. Insurance premium usually covers healthcare, auto, home, and life insurance.
However, one of the ways to reduce the mount paid on insurance premiums is to <em><u>reduce coverage on older cars.</u></em>
It is believed that if the car is worth less than 10 times the premium, paying for the coverage is not cost-effective.
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is option A. <u>"</u><u>Collision</u><u> coverage because their car is quite old and the </u><u>deductible</u><u> is relatively </u><u>high</u><u>."</u>
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Learn more about Insurance premiums here: brainly.com/question/24441770
Let p be the price of the bond.
Annual coupons payment = 85
Par value (future value) is $1000.
So with a yield-to-maturity of 10% in three years,
p(1+10%) = 1000+3*85
solve for p
p=(1000+3*85)/1.10=1140.91
Note: since the coupon payment is not reinvested in the bond, the value is not compounded. Thus there is additional benefit if the payments are reinvested elsewhere. In other words, the yield-to-maturity actually under-estimates the potential yield.
Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation of the material price variance is shown below:
= Actual Quantity × (Standard Price - Actual Price)
= 725,000 × ($2.95- $3)
= 725,000 × $0.5
= $36,250 unfavorable
b. The computation of the material quantity variance is shown below:
= Standard Price × (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)
= $2.95 × (730,000 - 725,000)
= $2.95 × 5,000
= $14,750 favorable
And, the total direct material cost variance is
= Material price variance + material cost variance
= $36,250 unfavorable + 14,750 favorable
= $21,500 unfavorable
