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amm1812
3 years ago
15

Why did the Albany Plan of Union fail?

History
1 answer:
Bas_tet [7]3 years ago
5 0
Albany Plan of Union, 1754. The Albany Plan of Union was a plan to place the British North American colonies under a more centralized government. ... Representatives of the colonial governments adopted the Albany Plan during a larger meeting known as the Albany Congress.
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A - There is were 2 sections
4 0
3 years ago
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American colonists were unlike people in most colonies and nations because of what reason?
kogti [31]
I think the major reason why American colonists were different is because they came to a new land to flee persecution from their government. In what I have learned about societies forming colonies, many colonies were formed in other countries because a nation had control of that country. Take the Greek empire for example. The Greek citizens moved to counties that Greece had invaded and dwelt among those people and learned from them as well. In the Americas no one had really formed a colony or claimed the land for their country. Hopefully this helps.
7 0
3 years ago
What were the features of barbed wire when it was first invented?
Goshia [24]

Answer:

It wasn't until 1874, when Illinois farmer Joseph Glidden emerged victorious from patent battle over a mechanically-produced fencing material that barbed wire could be made at scale. Glidden's machine pulled two strands of wire tight around the barb, then wound the wires together around the regularly-spaced spikes.

Explanation:

got this from google which is accurate to your question

7 0
3 years ago
For a large part of the 20th century, only a small part of the population in South Africa had a say in the government. Certain r
Stella [2.4K]
Yes, oligarchy fits as a description of South African government under the system of apartheid.  In the political philosophy of Aristotle, "aristocracy" is "rule by the excellent ones," and in certain eras of history or in some societies, one group or another has been portrayed as more "excellent" and thus more favorable for serving as governors.  In Aristotle's political thought, an "oligarchy" or "rule by a few" is a corruption of the idea of aristocracy.  But Aristotle was biased, believing that by nature some persons are more excellent than others, that some are more suited by nature to be followers, not leaders. (Aristotle used such logic in defending the institution of slavery, for instance.)   Today, we might argue that any sort of "aristocracy" or elitism is always an oligarchy, an arbitrary system in which a few dominate over the many because of factors that can't rationally be defended.

For another answer on a similar question, read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/9475348#readmore
8 0
4 years ago
Why doesn't the ancient Egyptian Sphinx have a nose?
maria [59]
 <span>The Egyptian Arab historian al-Maqrīzī wrote in the 15th century that the nose was actually destroyed by a Sufi Muslim named Muhammad Sa'im al-Dahr. In 1378 CE, Egyptian peasants made offerings to the Great Sphinx in the hope of controlling the flood cycle, which would result in a successful harvest. Please mark as Brainliest.

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4 0
3 years ago
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