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Ronch [10]
3 years ago
10

Which mathematicians first used the symbol pi Why?

Mathematics
1 answer:
gavmur [86]3 years ago
8 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

William Jones

<h2 /><h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

The number pi (π) is a platonic concept and has been used for 4000 years. The number pi can be approached but never reached. In general, this number means the constant ratio of the circumference to the diameter of any circle. Ancient Babylonians, Egyptians, and even Archimedes, one of the greatest mathematicians of the ancient world tried to approximate the value of pi, but in the 1700s, mathematicians began using the Greek letter π that was introduced by William Jones, in his second book <em>Synopsis Palmariorum Matheseos</em> or <em>A New Introduction to the Mathematics base</em>. Then, this symbol was popularized and adopted in 1737 by the greatest mathematician Leonhard Euler.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Let $f(x) = x^2$ and $g(x) = \sqrt{x}$. Find the area bounded by $f(x)$ and $g(x).$
Anna [14]

Answer:

\large\boxed{1\dfrac{1}{3}\ u^2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's sketch graphs of functions f(x) and g(x) on one coordinate system (attachment).

Let's calculate the common points:

x^2=\sqrt{x}\qquad\text{square of both sides}\\\\(x^2)^2=\left(\sqrt{x}\right)^2\\\\x^4=x\qquad\text{subtract}\ x\ \text{from both sides}\\\\x^4-x=0\qquad\text{distribute}\\\\x(x^3-1)=0\iff x=0\ \vee\ x^3-1=0\\\\x^3-1=0\qquad\text{add 1 to both sides}\\\\x^3=1\to x=\sqrt[3]1\to x=1

The area to be calculated is the area in the interval [0, 1] bounded by the graph g(x) and the axis x minus the area bounded by the graph f(x) and the axis x.

We have integrals:

\int\limits_{0}^1(\sqrt{x})dx-\int\limits_{0}^1(x^2)dx=(*)\\\\\int(\sqrt{x})dx=\int\left(x^\frac{1}{2}\right)dx=\dfrac{2}{3}x^\frac{3}{2}=\dfrac{2x\sqrt{x}}{3}\\\\\int(x^2)dx=\dfrac{1}{3}x^3\\\\(*)=\left(\dfrac{2x\sqrt{x}}{2}\right]^1_0-\left(\dfrac{1}{3}x^3\right]^1_0=\dfrac{2(1)\sqrt{1}}{2}-\dfrac{2(0)\sqrt{0}}{2}-\left(\dfrac{1}{3}(1)^3-\dfrac{1}{3}(0)^3\right)\\\\=\dfrac{2(1)(1)}{2}-\dfrac{2(0)(0)}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}(1)}+\dfrac{1}{3}(0)=2-0-\dfrac{1}{3}+0=1\dfrac{1}{3}

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3 years ago
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Westkost [7]

Answer:

-4

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
50 points plus brainiest if answer correctly!!
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whats the question?

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