Answer:
The EPS is approximately:
it can be any of them:
- if preferred dividends = $4,800,000, then EPS = $0.40 (option A)
- if preferred dividends = $720,000, then EPS = $1.76 (option B)
- if preferred dividends = $0, then EPS = $2 (option D)
EPS = (net income - preferred dividends) / outstanding shares = ($6,000,000 - preferred dividends) / 3,000,000 shares
The Price/Earnings ratio is approximately:
- if EPS = $0.40, then PE ratio = 12.5 (option D)
- if EPS = $1.76, then PE ratio = 2.84 (option C)
- if EPS = $2, then PE ratio = 2.5 (option B)
Price/earnings (PE) ratio = share price / EPS = $5 / EPS
EPS cannot be $1.80, since PE ratio = 2.78 and that is not an option.
Some companies have a higher share price for the same level of earnings. Why?
Some stocks like Amazon have a very low EPS, form any years its EPS was very low bu its stock price kept rising. The stock price is based mostly on potential future earnings, not current earnings. A company that is being liquidated might have a high EPS, but a very low stock price since it will stop operating soon.
Credit, job, be of the age 18
Answer:
The unrealised profit (PURP) of $5,000 [ (125,000 * .20) * (.2) ] should be subtracted from the profit share of Non-Controlling Interest.
Explanation:
When we prepare consolidated financial statements, we treat the companies of group as a single entity. That's why the intra-group transactions must be removed the consolidated statements. This involve adjustment of current accounts, unrealised profit on sale of goods/non-current asset, loan given by one group company to another etc.
When goods are sold by one group company to another at a markup and the buyer has not yet sold it to the third party, then the markup (profit) loading on these items is unrealised from group's point of view. This needs to be removed from the consolidated accounts because no one can make profit by trading with himself. This profit is termed as realised when the goods are sold to the third party. In the individual accounts, profit on this transaction has a credit balance so to remove it we debit the "cost of goods sold of group" and a credit entry to it is made to "inventory". This credit entry to inventory bring down the balance of inventory to what was the cost of that inventory to the group. Moreover, the recording of revenue by seller and inventory by buyer on intra-group sales and purchase is also adjusted.
After all the adjustments are made, the profit is distributed between parent's retained earnings and non-controlling interest. Now if the seller of goods is subsidiary, like in this case, the amount of unreaslised profit is deducted from NCI's profit share to calculate the profit attributable to parent's retained earnings.
Answer:
11/15 paycheck
Explanation: The amount should of been in the deposit section
Answer:
$250,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cash flows from operating activities to be reported on the Statement of Cash Flows
Using this formula
Cash flows=Income Statement+(Accounts receivable arising from sales)
Let plug in the formula
Cash flows=$240,000 +($80,000-$70,000)
Cash flows=$240,000 +$10,000
Cash flows=$250,000
Therefore the cash flows from operating activities to be reported on the Statement of Cash Flows is $250,000
