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dalvyx [7]
3 years ago
14

Flagler Corporation takes eight hours to complete the setup process for a certain electrical component, with the setup cost aver

aging $150 per hour. If the company's competitor can accomplish the same process in six hours, Flagler’s non-value-added cost would be:A. $0.B. $150.C. $300.D. $900.E. $1,200.
Business
1 answer:
Andrew [12]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option (c) $300

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Time taken to complete the setup process for a certain electrical component

= 8 hours

Average setup cost = $150 per hour

Time taken to complete the process by competitor company = 6 hours

Now,

Flagler’s non-value-added cost

= (Difference in time taken by the companies) × Average setup cost

or

Flagler’s non-value-added cost = ( 8 - 6 ) × 150

or

Flagler’s non-value-added cost = 2 × 150

or

Flagler’s non-value-added cost  = $300

Hence,

Option (c) $300

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quester [9]
The correct answer is c
7 0
2 years ago
If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0
2 years ago
You need a 30-year, fixed-rate mortgage to buy a new home for $210,000. Your mortgage bank will lend you the money at a 7.1 perc
miskamm [114]

Answer:

$573,963

Explanation:

First, calculate the present value of the loan payments using the following formula

PVA = PMT x [ ( 1 + r )^n - 1 ] / [ r ( 1 + r )^n)

PVA = $950 x [ ( 1 + 7.1%/12 )^360 - 1] / [ 7.1%/12 ( 1 + 7.1%/12 )^360)

PVA =  $141,362.32  

Now calculate the difference of Value of loan and the present value of loan payment

Difference = Loan value - PV of loan payment = $210,000 - $141,362.32 = $68,637.68

This te Ballon payment in present value term, We need to determine the value at the end of the loan term.

Hence we need to calculate the future value of this payment as follow

Future value = Present vale x ( 1 + Monthly Interest rate )^numbers of months

Future value = $68,637.68 x ( 1 + 7.1%/12 )^360

Future value = $573,963.09

Future value = $573,963

Hence the ballon Payment will be $573,963

7 0
2 years ago
A company has the opportunity to take over a redevelopment project in an industrial area of a city. No immediate investment is r
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

1-a. The are multiple IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. Rate of return = 7.58%

2. This is NOT a good investment because the NPV is negative.

Explanation:

Note: The estimated Net Cash Flow for the 4th year in the data is erroneously stated in the question as a positive value instead as a negative value since it is a cost.

The estimated net cash flows correctly before answering the question as follows:

Year End             Net Cash Flow

1                             $500,000

2                            $300,000

3                            $100,000

4                          –$2,400,000

5                            $150,000

6                            $200,000

7                            $250,000

8                            $300,000

9                            $350,000

10                           $400,000

The explanation of the answers is now given as follows:

1-a. Tabulate the PW versus the interest rate and determine whether multiple IRRs exist.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the tabulation of the PW versus the interest rate.

From Part 1-a of the attached excel file, it can be observed that multiple IRRs exist. This is because there two IRRs stated as follows:

The first IRR value = 4.09%

Second IRR value = 31.82%

1-b. If so, use the ERR method when e 8% per year to determine a rate of return.

Note: See Part 1-a of the attached excel file for the calculation of total future value of income when e = 8% per year.

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost not income. Therefore,

From attached excel, we have:

Total Future Value of Income = $3,661,508.81

In the attached excel file, note that year 4 has a cost (not income) of $2,400,000. Therefore, it future value is not calculated. However, the present of the cost can be calculated as follows:

Present value of cost in year 4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + e)^4 = $2,400,000 / (100% + 8%)^4 = $1,764,071.65

The rate of return can now be calculated as follows:

Rate of return = ((Total Future Value of Income / Present value of cost in year 4)^(1/Number of period)) - 1 = (($3,661,508.81 / $1,764,071.65)^(1/10)) - 1 = 0.0758, or 7.58%

2. Use the PW method and a MARR of 18% to determine whether this is a good investment.

Note: See Part 2 of the attached excel file for the calculation of net present value (NPV).

From part 2 of the attached excel file, we have:

Net present value = –$21,043.15

Since the net present value is negative, this implies that this is NOT a good investment.

Download xlsx
5 0
2 years ago
If gross pay increases by $500, total employee benefits increase by $200 and total job expenses decrease by $300, then total emp
denis23 [38]

Answer:

option (d) increases by $1,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Increase in gross pay = $500

Increase in total employee benefits = $200

Decrease in total job expenses = $300

Now,

The change total employment compensation

= Increase in gross pay + Increase in total employee benefits + Decrease in total job expenses

= $500 + $200 + $300

= $1,000             (Here, the positive value means an increase )

Hence,

The answer is option (d) increases by $1,000

5 0
3 years ago
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