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3 years ago

This model focuses on the practitioner as the agent of the occupational environment,

Business

1 answer:

Ainat [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer: A) The practitioner incorporating the principles of therapeutic use of self.

Explanation: The therapeutic use of the self is the ability of the therapist to be aware of himself and the patient and take care of what he communicates. It is as important as the techniques and knowledge and often makes the difference between success and failure in a treatment. By intervening therapeutically using our "I", counselling appears as a valuable tool that helps the therapist work more effectively to achieve the ultimate goal with the lowest possible personal cost.

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Selected operating data for two divisions of Outback Brewing, Ltd., of Australia are given below: Division Queensland New South

Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

1. Quuen Land Division

Margin 6.50%

ROI 11.70%

New South Wale Division Margin

Margin 3.50%

ROI 15.75%

2. New South wale Division

Explanation:

1. Computation for each division's margin, turnover, and return on investment (ROI)

QUUEN LAND DIVISION MARGIN

Using this formula

Margin =Net operating income/Total Sales

Let plug in the formula

Margin =$70,200/ $ 1,080,000

Margin=6.50%

QUUEN LAND DIVISION ROI

First step is to determine the Turnover using this formula

Turnover=Total sales/Average Asset

Let plug in the formula

Turnover= $ 1,080,000 /$600,000

Turnover =1.8 times

Now let determine the ROI using this formula

ROI =Margin * Turnover

Let plug in the formula

ROI=6.50%*1.8

ROI=11.70%

NEW SOUTH WALE DIVISION MARGIN

Margin =$ 83,475 / $ 2,385,000

Margin=3.5%

NEW SOUTH WALE DIVISION ROI

First step is to determine the Turnover using this formula

Turnover=Total sales/Average Asset

Let plug in the formula

Turnover= $ 2,385,000 /$530,000

Turnover =4.5 times

Now let determine the ROI using this formula

ROI =Margin * Turnover

Let plug in the formula

ROI=3.5%*4.5

RO1=15.75%

2. Based on the above calculation the divisional manager that seems to be doing the better job

Is NEW SOUTH WALE DIVISION because the ROI is greater.

3 0

2 years ago

Which of the following BEST describes a company's proper liquidity management?

Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.

Explanation:

Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.

For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.

Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.

Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.

Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

West County Bank agrees to lend Drake Builders Company $400,000 on January 1. Drake Builders Company signs a $400,000, 6%, 6-mon

viva [34]

Answer:

The answer is b.Cash ,000 Notes Payable ,000

Explanation:

The exact entry Drake Builders Company has to record in its accounting book for the proceeds received from the issuance of the note is:

1st January

Dr Cash 400,000

Cr Note Payable 400,000

As at the time the note is issued, no interest expenses has been incurred, all the answer with Interest expenses can be eliminated.

In fact, interest expenses is only incurred and accrued during the lifetime of the note, based on the number of days the note is hold; that is, from the day the fund is lend out to Drake Builders Company; not on the day of issuance.

6 0

3 years ago

Which type of break can you insert if you want to force text to begin on the next page?

pav-90 [236]

Insert a page break.

4 0

3 years ago

Derek has the opportunity to buy a money machine today. The money machine will pay Derek $44,309.00 exactly 16.00 years from tod

LenKa [72]

Answer:

$11,160.097

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Future value of machine = $44,309.00

Time, n = 16 years

Discount rate, r = 9.00% = 0.09

Now,

The amount Derek is will to pay will be the present value of the machine

Also,

we know

Future value = Present value × (1 + r)ⁿ

on substituting the respective values, we get

$44,309.00 = Present value × (1 + 0.09 )¹⁶

$44,309.00 = Present value × 3.97

Present value = $44,309.00 ÷ 3.97

Present value = $11,160.097

6 0

2 years ago