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Pie
3 years ago
13

T Company expects to incur the following per unit costs for 1,000 units of production: Direct materials of 4 pounds per unit at

$3 per pound AND direct labor of ¼ hour at $24 per hour AND variable overhead at 75 percent of direct labor costs AND fixed overhead of $3,000. What is the total amount of overhead to include in the overhead budget?
A. $13,500.
B. $4,500.
C. $3,000.
D. $11,250.
E. $7,500.
Business
1 answer:
Vladimir [108]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total overhead =  = $7,500

so here correct option is E. $7,500

Explanation:

given data

production = 1,000 units

direct labor = ¼ hour @ $24 per hour

variable overhead = 75 % of direct labor

fixed overhead = $3,000

to find out

total amount of overhead

solution

we first find Direct labor that is

Direct labor = ¼ × 24

Direct labor = $6

so

Total overhead will be here

Total overhead = Variable overhead + Fixed overhead     .................1

now put here value we get

Total overhead = ($6 ×  75% ) × 1,000 + $3,000

so

Total overhead =  = $7,500

so here correct option is E. $7,500

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3 years ago
Whitewater Rapids provides canoes to tourists eager to ride Whitewater river's rapids. Management has determined that there is o
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Answer:

Expected loss without insurance = $850

Explanation:

Given:

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Computation of Expected loss without insurance:

Expected loss without insurance = Lawsuit average cost × Probability to get injured or killed

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3 years ago
On January 1, 2005 Franz Company purchased a truck that cost $22,000. The truck had an expected useful life of 5 years and a $4,
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Answer: The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2006, using the double declining balance method is $5,280.

And the journal entries required are:

Debit Depreciation expense                     $5,280

Credit Accumulated depreciation             $5,280

Explanation: The double-declining method is otherwise known as reducing balance method. It is usually derived by using the formula below:

Double-declining depreciation = 2 X SLDP X BV

Where SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

           BV = Book value of the asset (Cost minus depreciation)

So using the straight-line depreciation method, we need to remove the salvage value from the cost and then divided by 5 years. That is, ($22,000 - $4,000) / 5 years = $3,060 yearly depreciation expense.

However, under the double-declining method, we need to divide the 100% by the useful life of the asset first to get the SLDP then multiply by 2, that is, 100%/5 years = 20% x 2 = 40%.

So 40% x $22,000 in year 1 (December 31, 2005) is $8,800

In year 2 (December 31, 2006), 40% x $13,200 ($22,000 - $8,800) = $5,280 and so on. The depreciation expense would stop immediately it falls below the salvage value of $4,000.

So the book value of the asset at the end of year 2 is $7,920 ($13,200 - $4,000 accumulated depreciation).

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An investor in Treasury securities expects inflation to be 1.6% in Year 1, 3.05% in Year 2, and 3.85% each year thereafter. Assu
mixer [17]

Answer:

The difference between two securities is 0.89%.

Explanation:

Inflation premium for the next three and five years:

Inflation premium (3) = (1.6% + 3.05% + 3.85%) ÷ 3

                                  = 2.83%

Inflation premium (5) = (1.6% + 3.05% + 3.85% + 3.85% + 3.85%) ÷ 5

                                  = 3.24%

Real risk-free rate = 2.35%

Since default premium and liquidity premium are zero on treasury bonds, we can now solve for the maturity risk premium:

Three-year Treasury securities = Real risk-free rate + Inflation premium (3) + MRP(3)

6.80% = 2.35% + 2.83% + MRP(3)

MRP (3) = 1.62%

Similarly,

5-year Treasury securities = Real risk-free rate + Inflation premium (5) + MRP(5)

8.10% = 2.35% + 3.24% + MRP(3)

MRP (5) = 2.51%

Thus,

MRP5 - MRP3 = 2.51% - 1.62%

                         = 0.89%

Therefore, the difference between two securities is 0.89%.

4 0
2 years ago
Schell Company manufactures automobile floor mats. It currently has two product lines, the Standard and the Deluxe. Schell has a
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Schell has a total of $39,060 in overhead.

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Standard= 400

Deluxe= 200

Machine hours:

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Deluxe= 3,000

To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

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Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 39,060/600= $65.1 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate to each product line:

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Standard= 65.1*400= $26,040

Deluxe= 65.1*200= $13,020

2) Machine hour as allocation rate:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 39,060/7,150= $5.46 per machine hour

Now, we can allocate to each product line:

Standard= 5.46* 4,150= $22,659

Deluxe= 5.46*3,000= $16,380

7 0
3 years ago
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