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rewona [7]
3 years ago
9

A consumer's willingness to trade one good for another can be expressed by the consumer's marginal rate of substitution. True Fa

lse
Business
1 answer:
kotykmax [81]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

A consumer's marginal rate of substitution (MRS) can be defined as the number or amount of goods that he/she is willing to trade for another in other to gain maximum satisfaction of the goods.

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Cogswell cola purchased a machine for $237,500. The firm paid another $5,750 for delivery and installation. In addition the firm
Novay_Z [31]

Based on the cost of purchasing the machine and the delivery and installation fees, the initial outlay is $243,250

<h3>How much is the initial outlay?</h3>

This can be found as:

= Cost of purchasing machine + Installation and delivery cost

Solving gives:

= 237,500 + 5,750

= $243,250

Find out more on fixed asset capitalization at brainly.com/question/25355478

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0
2 years ago
What opportunities do global markets present for a potential business owner?
algol13

Answer:

If going global has been in your business plans for some time, here's 8 reasons to start preparing for international expansion in 2020.

  • INCREASE REVENUE POTENTIAL. ...
  • ENTRY TO NEW MARKETS. ...
  • NEW CUSTOMER BASE. ...
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5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please help me? Why are subordinate bonds and preferred stock more risky than long-term senior bonds?
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Subordinated bonds, also known as subordinated debts, is an unsecured loan or bond that ranks below other, more senior loans or securities with the respect to claims on assets or earnings. Generally, subordinated bonds are debts that can be added to preferred stocks. Preferred stocks can be viewed as long- term investments, but are generally more risky because they are more sensitive to interest- rate risk if the rates rise. If they rise, then the price of the preferred stocks may fall and can fall lower than the price of short- term bonds. The difference between subordinated bonds and senior bonds is the priority in which the debt claims are paid. If one has to file bankruptcy or face liquidation, senior debts is paid back before the subordinate debt. Once the senior debt is completely paid back, then the subordinate debt starts being repaid.

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On January 1, 20X1, Beard Company purchased a machine for $620,000. The machine is expected to have a 10-year life, with no salv
Vinil7 [7]

Answer:

1. Why is this an operating lease for Child Company?

The life of the asset is 10 years while the lease is only 3 years long, so it cannot be classified as a financial lease.

2. What are the amounts of the right-of-use asset and lease liability that Child Company should report on its balance sheet at December 31, 20X1?

annual lease payment = $128,000 (ordinary annuity)

PVIFA, 9%, 3 periods = 2.5313

present value = $128,000 x 2.5313 = $324,006.40

3. How much lease expense should Child Company recognize in 20X1?

lease expense = PV of lease x interest rate = $324,006.40 x 9% = $29,160.58

6 0
3 years ago
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