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2 years ago

- Hector can throw a ball 50 feet

Mathematics

2 answers:

inysia [295]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

hector(50)- lee(48)

sleet_krkn [62]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

1 ball = 5o feet

same ball=48 feet

hactor=50-48=2

(b)=2

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Step-by-step explanation:

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EleoNora [17]

Answer:

a) $P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

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And adding we got:

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b) $P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

c) $P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

d) $E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Part a

We want this probability:

$P(X \leq 2)= P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)$

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

And adding we got:

$P(X \leq 2)=0.0115+0.0576+0.1369 = 0.2061$

Part b

We want this probability:

$P(X=4)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=4)=(20C4)(0.2)^4 (1-0.2)^{20-4}=0.2182$

Part c

We want this probability:

$P(X>3)$

We can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]$

$P(X=0)=(20C0)(0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{20-0}=0.0115$

$P(X=1)=(20C1)(0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{20-1}=0.0576$

$P(X=2)=(20C2)(0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{20-2}=0.1369$

$P(X=3)=(20C3)(0.2)^3 (1-0.2)^{20-3}=0.2054$

And replacing we got:

$P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886$

Part d

The expected value is given by:

$E(X) = np$

And replacing we got:

$E(X) = 20*0.2= 4$

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2 years ago

A number is greater than 8. The same number is less than 10. The inequalities x > 8 and x < 10 represent the situation.

Semenov [28]

Answer:

There are infinite solutions because there is always another number between any two numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Pick any number (including decimal) add an extra decimal after the smallest one and then you have a number between them. E.g.

1.234 and 2.987

1.2341, 1.2342, 1.2343, ... are all between them

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3 years ago

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