People holding money in anticipation that bond yields will rise is an example of

If Frica Morrison a machine operator at Stanley Foundry, makes $513.66 a week and has 33 in FIT withheld, how many allowances ha

exis [7]

Using the Single's Person Weekly payroll distribution , the number of allowances claimed by Frica Morrison will be 3.

Given that :

Weekly pay = $513.66
Federal income tax withheld = 33

From the payroll table, Frica's weekly pay falls inbetween $510 - $520 ; checking along the row, we can see from the table(attached) that Federal income tax withheld of $33 falls under the 3 allowances claimed.

This means that for Frica to have $33 withheld from his weekly pay of $513.66, then he must have claimed 3 allowances.

Therefore, the Number of allowances claimed by Frica Morrison is 3.

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4 0

2 years ago

A company is considering buying a new piece of machinery. A 10% interest rate will be used in the computations. Two models of th

JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

Machine I

capitalized cost: 230,271.28

EAC: $ 27,047.58

Machine II

EAC: $ 27,377.930

As Machine I cost per year is lower it is better to purchase that one.

Annual deposits to purchase Machine I in 20 years: $ 1,396.770

return of machine I with savings of 28,000 per year: 10.51%

Explanation:

WE calculate the present worth of each machine and then calculate the equivalent annual cost:

MACHINE 1

Operating cost:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 18,000

time 20

rate 0.1

$18000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-20} }{0.1} = PV\\$

PV $153,244.1470

Salvage value:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity $20,000.0000

time 20.00

rate 0.1

$\frac{20000}{(1 + 0.1)^{20} } = PV$

PV 2,972.87

Total: -80,000 cost - 153,244.15 annual cost + 2,972.87 salvage value:

Total: 230,271.28

$PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\$

Present worth $(230,271.28)

time 20

rate 0.1

$-230271.28 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-20} }{0.1} = C\\$

C -$ 27,047.578

Fund to purchase in 20 years:

$FV \div \frac{(1+r)^{time} -1}{rate} = C\\$

FV $80,000.00

time 20

rate 0.1

$80000 \div \frac{(1+0.1)^{20} -1}{0.1} = C\\$

C $ 1,396.770

IF produce a 28,000 savings:

we must solve using a financial calcualtor for the rate at which the capitalized cost equals 28,000

$PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\$

PV $230,271.28

time 20

rate 0.105126197

$230271.28 \div \frac{1-(1+0.105126197287798)^{-20} }{0.105126197287798} = C\\$

C $ 28,000.000

rate of 0.105126197 = 10.51%

Machine II

100,000 cost

25,000 useful life

15,000 operating cost during 10 years

20,000 for the next 15 years

Present value of the operating cost:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 15,000

time 10

rate 0.1

$15000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-10} }{0.1} = PV\\$

PV $92,168.5066

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 20,000

time 15

rate 0.1

$20000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-15} }{0.1} = PV\\$

PV $152,121.5901

in the timeline this is at the end of the 10th year we must discount as lump sum for the other ten years:

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity $152,121.5901

time 10.00

rate 0.1

$\frac{152121.590126167}{(1 + 0.1)^{10} } = PV$

PV 58,649.46

salvage value

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity $25,000.0000

time 25.00

rate 0.1

$\frac{25000}{(1 + 0.1)^{25} } = PV$

PV 2,307.40

Total cost: 100,000 + 92,168.51 + 58,649.46 - 2,307.40 = $248,510.57

$PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\$

PV $248,510.57

time 25

rate 0.1

$248510.57 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-25} }{0.1} = C\\$

C $ 27,377.930

4 0

4 years ago

Hilton Company manufactures two products: Product A100 and Product X500. The company currently uses a plantwide overhead rate ba

Serggg [28]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 765,000 / (7,000 + 6,200)

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $57.95 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead to each product:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Product Y:

Allocated MOH= 57.95*7,000= $405,650

Product Z:

Allocated MOH= 57.95*6,200= $359,390

Finally, the allocation rates based on ABC:

Machining= 231,000 /11,000= $21 per machine hour

Machine setups= 180,000/300= $600 per setup

Production design= 94,000 / 2= $47,000 per product

7 0

3 years ago

The quality of the report Jamie turned in was lower than expected. Here was

Mashcka [7]

Answer:

he was not doing his job right? im sorry if this is wrong

Explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Sue Bee Honey is one of the largest processors of its product for the retail market. Assume that one of its plants has annual fi

NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer:

$75 per case

Explanation:

Required: Selling Price per case

Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit

Sales = 800000 case x Selling Price (SP)

Variable cost = (800000 case x $40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)

Putting into equation:

Sales – Variable cost – Fixed cost = Target desired profit

(800000 x SP) – [(800000 x 40) + (800000 x SP x 25%)] - $8000000 = $ 5000000

>800000SP – (32000000 + 200000SP) – 8000000 = 5000000

>800000SP – 32000000 – 200000SP – 8000000 = 5000000

>800000SP – 200000SP = 5000000 + 8000000 + 32000000

>600000SP = 45000000

>SP = 45000000 / 600000

>SP = $ 75

3 0

3 years ago

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