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Sedbober [7]
3 years ago
7

How are the expressions equivalent? ​

Mathematics
2 answers:
V125BC [204]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

They are equivalent because \frac{1}{3} a is the same as \frac{1}{3} * \frac{a}{1}. Adding a one to the bottom of any whole number makes it in fraction form without changing the value. If you multiply these two terms, then you'll end up with a/3, so they are equivalent.

Alina [70]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

They R equivalent because 1 half and two half’s equal A

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