How are the expressions equivalent?

Mathematics

2 answers:

V125BC [204]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

They are equivalent because $\frac{1}{3} a$ is the same as $\frac{1}{3} * \frac{a}{1}$ . Adding a one to the bottom of any whole number makes it in fraction form without changing the value. If you multiply these two terms, then you'll end up with a/3, so they are equivalent.

Alina [70]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

They R equivalent because 1 half and two half’s equal A

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Can some one please help me <br> will give 94 points for it

NNADVOKAT [17]

You can solve this by using "similar triangles".

In triangle ABC, we are looking for side AC which is x. Side AC is similar to side DF in triangle EDF.

You can solve for side x by picking two sides in triangle ABC and their corresponding sides in triangle EDF. This is what I mean:
$\frac{AC}{BC} = \frac{DF}{EF}$
Substitute for the values of AC, BC, DF and EF:
$\frac{x}{4} = \frac{11}{8} \\ \\ 8x = 4 \times 11 \\ \\ x = \frac{44}{8}$
$x = 5.5 \: units$
To solve for y, do the same thing. Pick two sides on triangle ABC and their corresponding sides in triangle DEF.
$\frac{AB}{BC} = \frac{DE}{EF}$
Substitute for the values and solve:
$\frac{3}{4} = \frac{y}{8}$
$4y = 24 \\ \\ y = 6 \: units$

We have the value x to be 5.5 units and y to be 6 units.