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pshichka [43]
3 years ago
7

Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its

most recent year of operations. Estimated manufacturing overhead $ 157,150 Estimated machine-hours 4,520 Actual manufacturing overhead $ 156,200 Actual machine-hours 4,620 The estimates of the manufacturing overhead and of machine-hours were made at the beginning of the year for the purpose of computing the company's predetermined overhead rate for the year. The applied manufacturing overhead for the year is closest to:
Business
1 answer:
Ira Lisetskai [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$160,637.40

Explanation:

Calculation for the applied manufacturing overhead for the year

First step is to find the Predetermined overhead rate using this formula

Predetermined overhead rate=Estimated manufacturing overhead÷Estimated machine-hours

Let plug in formula

Predetermined overhead rate=157,150÷4,520

Predetermined overhead rate= 34.77

Last step is to calculate for the Applied Manufacturing overhead for the year using this formula

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year = Actual machine-hours*Predetermined overhead rate

Let plug in the formula

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year=

4,620*34.77

Applied manufacturing overhead for the year=$160,637.40

Therefore the applied manufacturing overhead for the year is closest to:$160,637.40

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Answer and Explanation:

The computation of two different depreciation schedules is shown below:-

a. Using the Double-declining balance method

Year            Equipment Cost      Depreciation rate     Amount

2005                $90,000                     50%                  $45,000

2006                $45,000                      50%                  $22,500

2007                $22,500                      50%                  $11,250

2008 No depreciation as it is lower that straight line method that is $22,500 also we took the double rate of 25% so we consider 50%

b. Using the straight line method

Straight Line Depreciation Method:

$100,000 - $10,000

= $90,000

Year            Equipment Cost      Depreciation rate      Amount

2005                $90,000                     25%                      $22,500

2006                $90,000                      25%                     $22,500

2007                $90,000                      25%                     $22,500

2008                $90,000                      25%                     $22,500

Depreciation rate is

= 1 ÷ 4 years

=  25

2. The double declining method reduced the net income while the straight line method increased the net icnome

5 0
3 years ago
When considering the impact of institutions and policies on economic performance, it is most important to focus onA. long-term e
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Answer: The correct answer is choice a.

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4 0
3 years ago
Industry analysts said that the recent rise in fuel prices may be an early signal of the possibility of gasoline and heating oil
yaroslaw [1]

Answer:

(E) that prices of gasoline and heating oil will stay higher than usual through

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Schager Company purchased a computer system on January 1, 2014, at a cash cost of $23,000. The estimated useful life is 10 years
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation= $7,272

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchased: January 1, 2014, at a cash cost of $23,000.

The estimated useful life is 10 years.

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Under the double-declining balance, we need to use the following formula for each year:

Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]

2014= [(23,000 - 2,800)/10]*2= 4,040

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3 0
3 years ago
"icrosoft announced a 2 for 1 stock split. Before the split they had 5.4b shares outstanding and par value was $0.0000125. Befor
aliina [53]

Answer: Balance before Split - $67,500

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Explanation:

Microsoft had 5.4b shares outstanding and par value was $0.0000125.

Before the split the balance in the Common Stock account was:

We will multiply the no. Of shares outstanding by the par value.

= 5.4 billion * $0.0000125

= $67,500

After the split shares outstanding are (in billions):

The split was a 2 for 1 split meaning the shares doubled. That would mean,

= 5.4b * 2

= 10.8 billion shares outstanding

After the split par value is:

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= $0.0000125/2

= $0.00000625

After the split the balance in Common Stock is

= 10.8 billion shares * $0.00000625

= $67,500

Balance remained the same showing that total equity remains the same. Only no of shares and price changes.

8 0
3 years ago
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