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hjlf
3 years ago
6

Estate settlement is provided by banks through

Business
2 answers:
igor_vitrenko [27]3 years ago
4 0

Estate settlement is provided by banks through the trust department.
kogti [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D. the trust department.

Explanation:

Estate settlement is the process to pay liabilities and distribute the remainings between the beneficiaries when a person dies and this is provided by banks through the trust department. This is an area in the banks that manage trusts for clients and can handle the assets as an executor when a person dies.

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On November 7, Mura Company borrows $370,000 cash by signing a 90-day, 8%, $370,000 note payable. 1. Compute the accrued interes
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Explanation:

AT, November 7, When Mura Company borrows the money :

Cash $370,000 (debit)

Note Payable $370,000  (credit)

At 31 December, the Interest for 54 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $17,740 (debit)

Note Payable $17,740 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 54/90

                                                = $17,740

At February 5, the interest for 60 days accrues as follows :

Interest expense $19,733 (debit)

Note Payable $19,733 (credit)

Interest expense calculation = $370,000 × 8% × 60/90

                                                = $19,733

On payment February 5, the Interest expense will be capitalized in the Note Payable as follows :

Note Payable $407,473 (debit)

Cash $407,473 (credit)

Note Payable Calculation = $370,000 + $19,733 + $17,740

                                              $407,473

3 0
4 years ago
On January 1, 2018, Allgood Company purchased equipment and signed a six-year mortgagenote for $186,000 at 15%. The note will be
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is A: interest= $21048

Explanation:

An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. While each periodic payment is the same amount early in the schedule, the majority of each payment is interest; later in the schedule, the majority of each payment covers the loan's principal.

Each payment is the same ($49,148), but the proportions of interest and capital pay changes. The interest proportion decreases from pay to pay.

Loan= 186000

i= 15%

n= 6 years

First pay:

i=186000*0,15=27900

amortization= 49148-27900=21248

Second pay:

i=(186000-21248)*0,15=24712

amort=49148-24712=24436

Third pay:

i=(164752-24436)*0,15=21048

amort=49148-21048=28100

While payments progress, interest decreases and amortization increases.

5 0
3 years ago
The standard quantity allowed for the units produced was 4,500 pounds, the standard price was $2.50 per pound, and the materials
katrin2010 [14]
The standard quantity that is produces is multiplied to the standard price. The product is subtracted to the quantity variance and will be divided to the standard price. The product you have acquired will be the units that are produced.

4,500 pounds x $2.50 = 11,250
11,250 - $375  = 10,875
10,875 / $2.50 = 4,350

Answer: There are 4,350 units produced.
7 0
3 years ago
Why does a​ $1 increase in government purchases lead to more than a​ $1 increase in income and​ spending? A. Through the governm
MArishka [77]

Answer:

D. Through the government purchases​ multiplier, the​ $1 increase in government spending will lead to an increase in aggregate demand and national​ income, which will lead to an increase in induced spending.

Explanation:

We know,

Multiplier = Changing real equilibrium GDP ÷Change of government spending.

If we increase the multiplier, government spending will lead to an increase in aggregate demand that is potential GDP is higher than actual GDP and national​ income, which will lead to an increase in induced spending. Therefore option D is the correct answer as options A, B, and C do not meet the requirements.

8 0
3 years ago
Concord Company had bonds outstanding with a maturity value of $311,000. On April 30, 2017, when these bonds had an unamortized
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

<u>Redemption of Old Bonds</u>

4-30-17   Bonds Payable                              $311000 Dr

              Loss on Bond Redemption           $26550 Dr

                       Discount on Bonds Payable        $11000 Cr

                       Cash                                                $326550 Cr

<u>Issuance of New Bonds</u>

3-30-17   Cash                                                 $314110 Dr

                     Premium on Bonds Payable            $3110 Cr

                     Bonds Payable                                  $311000 Cr

Explanation:

<u>Redemption of Bonds Payable</u>

The maturity value for bonds payable is equal to the face value of these bonds. This means that the face value of old bonds was $311000.

The bonds were carrying a discount. Thus, the carrying value of bonds was

Carrying value = Face value - Discount

Carrying value = 311000 - 11000    =  $300000

Bonds with a carrying value of $300000 were redeemed at 105% of the face value. The cash paid for redemption is,

Cash paid = 311000 * 105%  =  326550

Thus, there was a loss on redemption of = 326550  -  300000  = $26550

<u />

<u />

<u>Issuance of Bonds Payable</u>

The bonds were issued at 101% of the face value which means they were issued at a premium.

The amount of premium on these bonds is,

Premium = Carrying value - Face value

Premium = 311000 * 101%  - 311000  

Premium = $3110

3 0
3 years ago
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