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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
15

Germany invaded Denmark and Norway in 1940, allegedly to protect their freedom and independence

History
2 answers:
professor190 [17]3 years ago
8 0
False. 
Germany invaded Denmark because Hitler wanted to use its air bases.
The invasion of Norway was mostly to gain the iron ore shipment from Narvik.
So Germany invaded Norway and Denmark for their resources.
PSYCHO15rus [73]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

True

When Germany's Wermacht invaded Denmark and Norway they argued that it was meant to save their neutrality from the Britain-French party's aggression.

Explanation:

Germany invaded Denmark and Norway in 1940 stating that it was going to prevent that Britain or France would attack them because they had not declared war against Germany. Therefore the Germans invaded them and convinced them that they were going to provide them the protection to guarantee them safety. Because Britain or France could attack them or invade them for not having declared war against them.

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Answer:

OA. It provided for its people during emergency situations.

Explanation:

As given in the excerpt from the book <em>Chronicles of the Incas </em>by Pedro de Cieza de Leon, it is easy to understand that the government takes care of its people during their hard times. It also has no discrimination against the poor or the weak, nor does it differentiate between the rich and the poor, or the lords and the common people.

Equality was the main theme of the Incan government, with everyone required to work hard and supply the food for the storage. The statement <em>"No one who was lazy or tried to live by the work of others was tolerated; everyone had to work"</em> rightly provide proof that everyone was treated equal, where even the lords were made to work on the fields and take <em>"the plow in hand and cultivated the earth, and did other things"</em>. The requirement that anyone who is healthy must work and supply the storehouse, and when he is ill or in need of help, he can get however much he wants from the storehouse. Thus,<u> this system shows that there is no demarcation between the people and everyone was free to get what they need but also required to work in providing for the storehouse.  </u>

Thus, the correct answer is option A.

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4 years ago
Read the paragraph that first mentions Aristotle. What do you think the word political means in the sentence? Why did Aristotle
Oduvanchick [21]

Hello. You did not show the text to which this question refers, which makes it impossible to execute an answer exactly. However, I will try to help you in the best possible way.

Aristoteles refers to everything that is political as something that was responsible for promoting the general and collective good. For this reason, it is likely that the text to which your question refers, exposes this type of meaning, since it was an intrinsic thought of Aristoteles.

He used this word in his writings to expound his thoughts on how society should be managed and how communities should be structured and maintained by its members.

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