Individuals differ in risk aversion because of differences in income or wealth.
- Risk aversion is the propensity of people to choose outcomes with low uncertainty over those with high uncertainty, even when the average outcome of the latter is equal to or higher in monetary worth than the more definite event. This tendency is shown in both economics and finance.
- Risk aversion is the tendency to avoid danger. A risk-averse investor is one who prioritizes money preservation over the potential for a higher-than-average return. Price volatility and investment risk are the same.
- If someone would rather take the risk and maybe receive nothing than accept a definite payment (certainty equivalent) of less than $50 (for instance, $40), they are considered to be risk averse. If they have no preference between the wager and a specific $50 payoff, they are risk neutral.
Thus the correct answer is d.
Refer here to learn more about risk aversion: brainly.com/question/8394406
#SPJ4
Answer: Synapse
Explanation: The synapse is a specialized (functional) intercellular approach between neurons, either between two association neurons, a neuron and a recipient cell or between a neuron and an effect or cell (almost always glandular or muscular). In these contacts the nerve impulse transmission takes place.
From the details that are contained in the question, the portfolio standard deviation is 0.0544 or 5.44%
<h3>How to solve for the portfolio standard deviation</h3>
w1 = weight of euros 1 = 500000/800000
w2 = weight of canadian dollars = 300000/800000
Standard deviation 1 = 8%
Standard deviation 2 = 3%
Correlation coefficient = 0.30
(w1*σ1)² + (w2*σ2)² + (2* w1*σ1* w2*σ2 * 0.30)^0.5

Therefore the portfolio standard deviation is given as 0.0544 or 5.44%
Read more on standard deviation here: brainly.com/question/475676
Answer:
Free trade.
Explanation:
This theoretical policy can be explained to be certain laws under which the government is seen to impose absolutely no tariffs, taxes, or duties on imports, or quotas on exports. Therefore, it is directly seen to be the opposite of protectionism, a defensive trade policy intended to eliminate the possibility of foreign competition. It is seen in terms of unrestricted measures in importation and also exportation of goods in and out of a country.
In the world of our own, which is of the recent times, this policy implementation is done by means of a formal and mutual agreement of the nations which are seen to be involved. Also this policy in some cases may simply be the absence of any trade restrictions.
Answer:
A larger industrial and service sector, and a larger number of people working outside of agriculture, can indicate a higher level of industrialization in the economy and vice versa. This means that the size of industrial service and the sector of agriculture employment rate indicates the level of industrialization because if the agriculture employment is higher than the industrial service it means that the country is not fully developed yet and therefore the level of industrialization is lower. But if the industrial service is higher than the agriculture employment that suggests or indicates that the country is developing or developed. For example in the United States the size of the industrial/service sector is much larger than it's agricultural employment and therefore this should suggest that country is much more industrialized or developed and the United States is. In comparison you take a developing country such as Chad and you can see that the agricultural employment is higher than the size of the industrial/service sector and in relation to this you can see that Chad must have a lower level of industrialization and in fact it does.
Explanation: