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morpeh [17]
3 years ago
10

The declaration of independence refers to right as begin unalienable. What does “unalienable “ mean

History
1 answer:
True [87]3 years ago
6 0

I'm pretty sure it would be the second bubble. Cannot be surrendered. Hope this helps! =^-^=

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“After the year 1500 there was no pepper to be had at calicut that was not dyed red with blood Voltaire 1756.”
mr_godi [17]

What this sentence that was made by Voltaire means is that the periods after the year 1500 was full of violence an a lot of blood shed.

<h3>What violence did Voltaire mention?</h3>

Voltaire used the speech to paint a picture of violence that could erupt in the human race. He was one of the enlightenment personalities that existed. He saw the many deficiencies that was existent in human nature. This was what made him to make such a speech.

Hence we can conclude that the meaning of this quote tells us that there would be violence and blood shed by using the the ways that the man made the speech.

Read more on Voltaire here: brainly.com/question/13331947

#SPJ1

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