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ANTONII [103]
3 years ago
9

I WILL AWARD BRAINLIEST!! PLEASE HELP ME!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
maks197457 [2]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

<MBK because of the isosceles triangle theorem. If two sides of a triangle are congruent, it is isosceles, so the angles opposite them are also congruent.

Step-by-step explanation:

GalinKa [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<MBK is approximately equals to < MKB, by reason of property of an isosceles triangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

In the given triangle, < ABC has a bisector K which divides the angle into two equal parts. Then given that BM = MK,

                < BMK + < CMK = 180^{0} (sum of angles on a straight line)

                < ABC = < CMK (corresponding angles)

Thus, KM ll AB.

Considering the isosceles triangle KBM,

                BM = MK  (given property of the triangle)

Since two sides are equal, then two angles would be equal.

So that,

                <MBK = < MKB (the opposite angles of the sides of an isosceles triangle are equal)

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