Answer:
The correct answer is: Option; premium or option price.
Explanation:
As the name implies, an option refers to the right that is given to a potential buyer of capital goods to exercise currency trading within a specified time and amount. To carry out this process, an in-depth study must be carried out in order to make the best investment decision, for the benefit of both parties.
For its part, the price of the premium or option refers to the amount paid by the buyer in order to exercise the legitimate right over the capital asset. The premium corresponds to the value paid in excess and that represents a higher value for the seller within market estimates.
Answer:
The correct answer is D. Is the return investors require on the total assets of the firm.
Explanation:
The Weighted Average Capital Cost (WACC) is a financial measure, which has the purpose of encompassing in a single figure expressed in percentage terms, the cost of the different sources of financing that a company will use to fund a specific project.
To calculate the WACC, it is necessary to know the amounts, interest rates and tax effects of each of the selected sources of financing, so it is worth taking the time to analyze different combinations of these sources and take the one that provides the lower figure
.
Comparatively, without going into the detail of the project evaluation, "the WACC must be less than the profitability of the project to be funded" or expressed in another order, "the project performance must be greater than the WACC."
Money supply = Currency in circulation + Checkable deposits.=600 + 900 = 1500 Billion
Current deposit ratio = Currency in Circulation/ Checkable deposits. = 600/900 = .667
Excessive reserve ratio = Excess Reserves/Checkable deposits.= 15/900 = .0167
Money multiplier = (1 + C)/(rr + ER + C)= (1 + .667)/ (.0278 + .0167 + .667) = 2.343
Answer:
A revenue statement is not a basic financial statement.
Answer:
Option A The impact of a change in the local currency on inflow and outflow variables can sometimes be indirect and therefore different from what is expected.
Explanation:
The reason is that the changes in the currency exchange rate in which the company receives the payment and is also not a home currency, such risk exposure is known as economic exposure. So the only option that correct here is option A.
Option B is incorrect because depreciation is non cash item and it is not exposed to currency fluctuations.
Option C and D are also incorrect because domestic firms don't face any economic exposure.