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Ratling [72]
3 years ago
7

On January 1, Bargain Company's valuation allowance for trading investments account had a debit balance of $18,500. On December

31, the cost of the trading securities portfolio is $80,000. The fair value is $100,000. Which of the following would Bargain Company report?
Business
1 answer:
kirill115 [55]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: An unrealized gain, $1,500

Explanation: An unrealized gain is a gain that would result from an uncompleted trade, should it be closed. In this question, the value of the securities have gone up to $100,000 but the securities have not been sold yet. The unrealized gain, due to increase in value is $20,000 ($100,000 - $80,000).

However, there is a debit balance of $18,500 in the valuation allowance account. This account is used to offset any asset on which a deferred tax is to be paid, in this case our incomplete trade. The amount therefore has to be subtracted from the unrealized gain, leaving Bargain Company with $1,500 gain ($20,000 - $18,500).

An unrealized loss stems from a decline in value on a transaction that has not been completed yet. The entity or investor would not incur the loss unless they chose to close the deal or transaction while it is still in this state. For instance, while the shares in the above example remain unsold, the loss has not taken effect. It is only after the assets are transferred does that loss become substantiated. Waiting for the investment to recoup those declines could result in the unrealized loss being erased, or becoming a profit.

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Gates Corp. has net income of $172,000, sales of $ 1,453,909, and an accounts receivable balance of $127,100. Assume that 100% p
serious [3.7K]

Answer:

Days' sales in receivables= 31.91 days

Explanation:

The day's sales in account receivable ratio is also called average collection period. It states the number of days on the average to collect a business's account receivable.

Days sales turnover is calculated by dividing total number of days in a year by the account recievables turnover ratio.

The formula for accounts receivable turnover ratio= Current credit sales received/ Accounts receivable balance

Accounts receivable turnover= 1,453,909/127,100

Accounts receivable turnover= 11.439

Assume a 365 day year

Days' sales in receivables= 365/Account receivable turnover

Days' sales in receivables= 365/11.439

Days' sales in receivables= 31.908~ 31.91 days

3 0
3 years ago
Which is a tool used by the federal reserve in the conduct of monetary policy?
Hoochie [10]
There are three tools to achieve its monetary policy goals: the discount rate, reserve requirements, and open market operations
8 0
3 years ago
In this type of budget, the master budget is based on a single prediction for sales volume, and the budgeted amount for each cos
SOVA2 [1]

Answer:

Fixed budget.

Explanation:

A fixed budget can be regarded as financial plan which is not been modified for any variations that could come up in actual activity. In most times some companies may have experience of substantial variations as regards their expected activity levels within the encompassed period of budget as well as the amounts in that budget. The budget cost allowances in a fixed budget for each cost item cannot be changed as regards the variable items. It should be noted that in Fixed budget the master budget is based on a single prediction for sales volume, and the budgeted amount for each cost essentially assumes that a specific amount of sales will occur.

3 0
3 years ago
Rise Against Corporation is comparing two different capital structures: an all equity plan (Plan A) and a levered plan (Plan B).
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

a. Plan A

b. Plan B

c. $638,400

Explanation:

The formula to compute the earning per share is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income - interest) ÷ (Number of shares)

a. For Plan A

EPS = ($500,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $2.38

For Plan B

EPS = ($500,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $2.12

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan A has higher EPS

b. For Plan A

EPS = ($750,000) ÷ (210,000 shares) = $3.57

For Plan B

EPS = ($750,000 - $182,400) ÷ (150,000 shares) = $3.78

The interest is computed below:

= $2.28 million × 8%

= $182,400)

Plan B has higher EPS

c. Break-even EBIT

(EBIT) ÷ (Number of shares) = (EBIT - Interest) ÷ Number of shares

(EBIT) ÷ (210,000) = (EBIT - $182,400) ÷$150,000

After solving this,

The EBIT would be $638,400

3 0
3 years ago
When the market rate is 10%, a company issues $60,000 of 12%, 10-year bonds dated January 1, 2017, that mature on December 31, 2
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

Credit, $60,000

Explanation:

Given,

Market rate = 10%

Face value $60,000 = Principal value.

When the bonds mature, the issuer records its payment of principal with credit to cash in the amount of principal value that is $60,000 because the bondholder will pay the principal with interest.

Therefore,

Bondholder will pay the $60,000 issued amount as principal because there is an additional interest amount needs to be paid.

It is credit because it is matured on the date of cash payment.

8 0
3 years ago
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