Answer:
The euro return to investing directly in euros is 180 5% 10% 360 = × ÷ , so the euros available in 180 days is EUR10,000,000 × 1.05 = EUR10,500,000. Alternatively, the EUR10,000,000 can be converted into Swiss francs at the spot rate of EUR1.1960/CHF. The Swiss francs purchased would equal EUR10,000,000 / EUR1.1960/CHF = CHF8,361,204. This amount of Swiss francs can be invested to provide a 180 4% 8% 360 = × ÷ return over the next 180 days. Hence, interest plus principal on the Swiss francs is CHF8,361,204 × 1.04 = CHF8,695,652. If we sell this amount of Swiss francs forward for euros at the 180-day forward rate of EUR1.2024/CHF, we get a euro
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return of CHF8,695,652 ×EUR1.2024/CHF = EUR10,455,652. This is less than the return from investing directly in euros.If these were the actual market prices, you should expect investors to do covered interest arbitrages. Investors would borrow Swiss francs, which would tend to drive the CHF interest rate up; they would sell the Swiss francs for euros in the spot foreign exchange market, which would tend to lower the spot rate of EUR/CHF; they would deposit euros.
Explanation:
Explanation:
The consumer choice theory corresponds to the variables that lead a consumer to consume a product or service instead of another.
The purchase decision-making process consists of several stages where the consumer identifies a need, searches for available options to satisfy that need and finally, evaluates and chooses the most appropriate purchase option.
This decision is linked to the benefits that the consumer will have with the product in relation to his budget.
Answer:
CCA for year 2 is $164,062.50
Explanation:
Total cost of machine = $750,000
CCA rate = 25%
CCA in year 1 = (Total cost / 2) * CCA rate
CCA in year 1 = ($750,000/2)*0.25
CCA in year 1 = $93,750
For year 2, CCA = (Total cost - CCA in year 1) *CCA rate
For year 2, CCA = ($750,000 - $93,750)*0.25
For year 2, CCA = $164,062.50
Hence, CCA for year 2 is $164,062.50
Answer:
a.) Raw material 210000
Account payable 210000
(Purchase material on account)
b.) 1.Work in process 151200
Raw material 151200
(material used)
2.Overhead 37800
Raw material 37800
(Record indirect material )
c.)1. Work in process 49000
Factory payroll 49000
(Record direct labor)
2. Overhead 20000
Factory payroll 20000
(Record indirect labor)
d.) Overhead 106000
Accumulated depreciation 106000
(record depreciation)
e.) Overhead 130000
Account Payable 130000
f.) work in process (8*76400) 611200
Overhead 611200
g.) Finished goods 511000
Work in process 511000
( record completion of goods from wip to finished goods)
h.)Account receivable 605680
Sales 6056800
(record sales on account)
Explanation:
f.Overhead applied to a particular job= Predetermined rate* job hours allocated
h. copmlete job were shipped to customer at 34% above cost =(452000*34%)=452000+153680=605680.
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
b. The upper specification limit is
= 4 + 0.08
= 4.080 mm
c. The Lower specification limit is
= 4 - 0.08
= 3.920 mm
d. The process capability index is
= min ((Upper specification limit - Mean) ÷ (3 × Standard deviation)), ((Mean - Lower specification limit)÷ (3 × Standard deviation))
= min (0.08 ÷ (3 × 0.02)), (0.08 ÷ (3 × 0.02))
= min (1.333, 1.333)
So it would be 1.333
e. Upper specification = 4.08 mm
Mean line = 4.0 mm
Now,
The upper specification lies at a distance = Upper specification - Mean line
= 4.08 mm - 4.0 mm
= 0.08 mm
upper specification =Upper specification lies ÷ One standard deviation
= 0.08 mm ÷ 0.02 mm
= 4 mm which is standard deviations from the mean