Answer:
d. $96,914
Explanation:
Parker Co. can execute money market hedge in following steps:
(1) Parker Co. pledges Receivable of SF200,000 to borrow SF190,476 with rate 5% in Switzerland; SF190,476 = SF200,000/ (1+5%)
so it has to pay interest expense of SF9,524 in 360 days. The receivable of SF200,000 is enough for both principal and interest in 360 days.
(2) Then it sells SF190,476 at spot rate $0.48 to get $91,428
(3) Then it deposits $91,428 in US with rate 6% to get back $96,914 in 360 days
; $96,914 = $91,428 * (1+6%)
Answer:
The ending balance in the Allowance for Bad Debts is 20,500 CREDIT
Explanation:
The ending balance of Allowance for bad debts would be the 2.5% of sales
The adjustment is made to get the allowance for Bad Debt match the estimate uncollectible ammounts.
Notice it state <em>"company adjusted for bad debt expense"</em>
This means<u> it debit this account as much as it needed to be</u> to make allowance match the estimate allowance.
The write-off are transaction durign the period. They are irrelevant
So the ending balance is:
<em>2.5% of credit sales of 820,000 = $20,500</em>
It is important to remember that <u>Allowance is a counter-asset account</u>. His <em>normal balance is credit</em>, so the<u> final balance is credit.</u>
Answer:
d. Statements a and c are correct
Explanation:
The primary market is the market where for the first time the new securities such as shares, stocks, bonds, etc. are being sold to the general public or we can refer initial public offer. The initial public offer is an example of the primary market
On the other side, the secondary market is that market where the shares are bought or sold through the investors after the sale to the public at large.