Answer:
What will Sam have to pay for this equipment if the loan calls for semiannual payments (2 per year)
and monthly payments (12 per year)?
Compare the annual cash outflows of the two payments.
- total semiannual payments per year = $2,820.62 x 2 = $5,641.24
- total monthly payments per year = $531.13 x 12 = $6,373.56
Why does the monthly payment plan have less total cash outflow each year?
- The monthly payment has a higher total cash outflow ($6,373.56 higher than $5,641.24), it is not lower. Since the compounding period is shorter, more interest is charged.
What will Sam have to pay for this equipment if the loan calls for semiannual payments (2 per year)?
- $2,820.62 x 12 payments = $33,847.44 ($25,000 principal and $8,847.44 interests)
Explanation:
cabinet cost $25,000
interest rate 10%
we can use the present value of an annuity formula to determine the monthly payment:
present value = $25,000
PV annuity factor (5%, 12 periods) = 8.86325
payment = PV / annuity factor = $25,000 / 8.8633 = $2,820.62
present value = $25,000
PV annuity factor (0.8333%, 60 periods) = 47.06973
payment = PV / annuity factor = $25,000 / 47.06973 = $531.13
Answer:
less than zero
Explanation:
According to the law of demand, an increase in price reflects in a decrease in demad. That is, price and demand are inversely proportional. Since ax is associated with the price of good X, it must be negative to accurately describe that behavior in the demand function.
Thus, ax will be: less than zero.
Answer:
The correct answer is $1.2 per share.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:
Interest expense of Bonds = $20,000 × 4% = $800
Now, Interest expense of Bond, After tax = $800 × ( 1 - 50%) = $800 × 0.50
= $400
So, we can calculate the diluted earning by using following formula:
Diluted Earning = (Net income + Interest expense after tax) ÷ Total outstanding shares outstanding
Where, Total outstanding shares = 1,000 shares + 1,000 shares = 2,000 shares
By putting the value, we get
Diluted earning = ($2000 + $400 ) ÷ 2,000
= $1.2 per share
In a split offering, we see that a) shares are issued from the corporation and sold by existing shareholders.
<h3>What is a split offering?</h3>
A split offering is a type of stock issuance that involves the issuing of new stock and existing stock that it is in the market already. This is why it is called a split offering - one side of the offering comes from the corporation, and the other comes from the existing shareholders.
With a split offering, the seller will be existing shareholders and not the company. This means that the corporation that issues the shares, will then cooperate with existing shareholders who will then be the ones to sell the shares.
Find out more on stock offerings at brainly.com/question/13049425.
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Answer:
b. $20,000
Explanation:
Goodwill = Investment in Subsidiary - (Asset With book value - Liability with book value) - (Fair value of Asset - Book value of Asset)
Goodwill = $95,000 - ($86,400 - $15,000) - ($90,000 - $86,400)
Goodwill = $95,000 - $71,400 - $3,600
Goodwill = $20,000
So, parent should record goodwill on this purchase of $20,000
