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Anna11 [10]
3 years ago
8

A hamburger stand near the local mall sells hamburgers for $3.99, drinks for $1.99, and fries for $1.49, while a gourmet restaur

ant nearby sells entrees for $20, $30, and $45. Both of these restaurants are using ________.
Business
2 answers:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Psychological pricing

Explanation:

Psychological pricing is the pricing method that is based on the belief that prices always have psychological effects. Pricing are purposely done in a way to appeal to customers emotion , To achieve this , a common pattern is always employed in the pricing system . It could either be the use of odd numbers for prices or a rhyme decimal figure.

Using two decimal figures and whole numbers by the two stores is an example of psychological pricing system

wel3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Psychological pricing

Explanation:

Psychological pricing also known as price ending, charm pricing is a pricing and marketing strategy based on the theory that prices produces a psychological impact. This involves setting prices as odd prices being a little less than a whole number such as $9.99 or £2.99. It is believed that consumers think that this prices are lower than they actually are.

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Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams?A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of fort
Maslowich

Answer: E

Explanation:Self-managed work teams represent an approach to organizational design that goes beyond quality circles or ad hoc problem-solving teams. These teams are natural work groups that work together to perform a function or produce a product or service. They not only do the work but also take on the management of that work functions formerly performed by supervisors and managers. This allows managers to teach, coach, develop and facilitate rather than simply direct and control. In a self Self-managed work teams there’s decrease position take on supervision .

4 0
3 years ago
nuary 1, Campanella Inc. issued $4,000,000, 8% bonds for $3,756,000. The market rate of interest for these bonds is 10%. Interes
olasank [31]

Answer:

$188,400

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Value Bonds issued = $4,000,000

Amount for which bonds issued = $3,756,000

Thus,

Bond discount at the time of issue = $4,000,000 - $3,756,000

= $244,000

Interest = 8%

Interest payable = Value Bonds issued × Interest  

= $4,000,000 × 8%

= $320,000

Market rate of interest = 10%

Therefore,

Interest expense = $3,756,000 × 10%

= $375,600

Thus,

Discount amortized = Interest expense  - Interest payable

= $375,600 - $320,000

= $55,600

Therefore,

At the end of the first year, Campanella should report unamortized bond discount

=  Bond discount at the time of issue - Discount amortized

= $244,000 - $55,600

= $188,400

3 0
3 years ago
Piscataway National Bank pays compound interest on savings accounts, but at different rates depending on the amount of the accou
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

It will take 4.2 years

Explanation:

The amount due in the future when a sum of money is invested at a particular interest rate for certain number of years is called Future or compound value.

To calculate the compound value, we use the formula below:

FV = PV * (1+r)^n

FV- future value, PV - Present value, r - interest rate, n - number of years

In this question,

FV - 15,000, PV- 5000, r -3%, n- ?

Substituting this value we have:

15,000 = 5000 × (1+0.03)^n

15000 = 5000 ×  1.03^n

1.03^n = 15,000/5000

1.03^n = 3

log 1.03^n = Log 3

n = Log 3/log 1.03

n = 4.18735

It will take about 4.2 years for the account to reach $15,000

3 0
3 years ago
Who is responsible for the preparation and integrity of the financial statements?
mezya [45]
The management of a company is responsible for the preparation and integrity of financial statements. These then get based on to accountants for tax purposes. Just as we keep records and "manage" our personal accounts for financial purposes, management does this for their corporation. 
8 0
4 years ago
The three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert ____; second step, convert ___
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

Explanation:

A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.

A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.

In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.

Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.

7 0
3 years ago
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