Answer: the north
Explanation:
I this is a question about the civil war or at least that time perion the only answer is the north because the south tried to abandon the north because they were being unfair towards the south and trying to take their money because the carpet baggers and other northerners were beginning to loose money from the south because of things like the cotton gen rise in slavery, and other inventions that made it possible for the south to directly trade with other countries instead of going through the north and then it was this big thing because the north didn't want the south to be independent because they wanted to get money and business from the south so they resulted to giving the south many restrictions and trying to take away their slave but the south wasn't going to stand for this because the borth had slaves too and the southerners thought they were doing a lot better before the northerners tried to get all up in their space so they left like, " bye, bye don't need you" anyways it was like this big deal and crazy things started happening and the all of a sudden they went to war with each other (woah who saw that coming am I right:/) and tada long story short the south was crushed and burnt to the ground and the southerners had no choice but to swallow their pride and come crawling back to the north with their heads between their tails and let me tell you things were never the same after that ( even today we still recognize the Mason-dixon line which was the original seperation of the Yankees and Confederates in the civil war(which wasn't rlly that simple btw)) ( but none of that was the point....ooof gotta love tangents:) anywho the north didn't want to take bake the south because people hold grudges and a lot happened that needed to be forgiven plus the south wasn't rlly sorry ( talk about last resorts am I right)
hope this helps
I'm a little rusty on my history bc I don't have a history class this semester but I gotta say a little impressed with my memory
sorry about my grammar but grammar rules don't be applying after 3:15 Ga time
Answer:
In no way would it have been possible to prevent World War II. Western powers, especially Britain and France, attempted to carry out appeasement policies against the imperialist actions of Germany in Austria and the Czech Republic. The United States, on the other hand, was carrying out an isolationist policy, with which it hardly intervened in the moment before the war.
In any case, no alternative could have worked in the face of Adolf Hitler's imperialist impetus, who wanted to create a predominant German empire throughout Europe. Nor could the expansionist thirst of Italy, whose leader Benito Mussolini sought to control the Mediterranean and regain a position of power after World War I, could have been quenched. Furthermore, the Empire of Japan was in the same position as its two allies. All this created a warlike breeding ground, which in no way could be restrained peacefully without huge losses on the part of Western countries.
So what I've learned in the past is the operators have made an error ( in Mark II) and when that happened that's when the term bug came!
Answer:
a. the use of vernacular language
Explanation:
:)