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Gnoma [55]
2 years ago
8

Which of these is NOT a reason to design quality into processes rather than to find problems later through inspections? ​ a. Som

e mistakes are likely to reach the customer. b. It costs more to make junk and then remake it. c. The time spent on rework aggravates time pressures that already exist on projects. d. The best inspectors can find every variation and defect
Business
2 answers:
bija089 [108]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d.

Explanation:

Based on the answers provided it can be said that the choice that is NOT a reason to do this would be that the best inspectors can find every variation and defect. The reason being that just because the inspectors are good at their jobs and can detect any defect does not make it okay, and will cause more problems than solutions in the long run.

andre [41]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer would be D, the best inspectors can find every variation and defect.

Explanation:

For example, quality by design is a comprehensive program that begins with understanding user needs and continues through (but does not end with) monitoring customer acceptance. Management tools and processes such as ISO 9000 standards and the Food and Drug Administration Quality System Regulations exist to guide medical device manufacturers in quality practices. The goal is to deliver products acceptable for their intended use. Quality control begins with defining attributes ranging from color to accuracy and precision.

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For federal tax purposes, which of the following is true regarding lump-sum life insurance benefits?
Lorico [155]

Based on the information given, it should be noted that all proceeds are income tax free in the year that they're received.

<h3>What is tax?</h3>

A tax simply means a compulsory levy that's paid by the people or companies to the government. It's important to achieve economic development.

For federal tax purposes regarding lump-sum life insurance benefits, it should be noted that all proceeds are income tax free in the year that they're received.

Learn more about tax on:

brainly.com/question/9437038

7 0
2 years ago
What was the major difficulty for the athletes?
valina [46]

Answer:

injuries

Explanation:

because

4 0
2 years ago
Frantic Fast Foods had earnings after taxes of $900,000 in 20X1 with 301,000 shares outstanding. On January 1, 20X2, the firm is
Semmy [17]

Answer:

A.$2.99

B.$1.15

Explanation:

Frantic Fast Foods

A.Computation of the earnings per share for the year 20X

Using this formula

Earnings per Share=Earnings after Taxes/Shares Outstanding

Let plug in the formula

900,000/301,000

=$2.99

The earnings per share for 20X1 will be $2.99

B. Computation of the earnings per share for the year 201X

Earnings after Taxes= 301,000 * 1.28 = 385,280

Shares Outstanding=301,000 + 32,000 = 333,000

Hence,

Earnings after Taxes/Shares Outstanding

385,280 / 333,000 = $1.15

Therefore the earnings per share for 20X1 will

be $1.15 .

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a correct statement? Multiple Choice Writing off an uncollectible account under the allowance method d
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

Estimating un-collectible accounts expense improves the matching of revenues and expenses.

Explanation:

When uncollectibles are recorded through allowance method then, bad debts expense is provided, which reduces net income. But at the time of writing off only the allowance and accounts receivables account is affected and not the net income.

When direct method is used then also the net income gets reduced, as bad debt expense and accounts receivables is affected.

And as provided in first para, when estimating and creating the allowance for bad debts, it affects net income, and it also represents the true and fair view of expenses and income.

Thus, statement c is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
Computing first-year depreciation and book value At the beginning of the year, Austin Airlines purchased a used airplane for $33
irakobra [83]

Answer:

1. a. $560,000

  b. $13,400,000

  c. $7,700,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense and the year end book value for the first year is shown below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ (5 years)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ (5 years)  

= $560,000

In this, the depreciation expense is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= Percentage ÷ useful life

= 100 ÷ 5

= 20%

Now the rate is double So, 40%

In year 1, the original cost is $33,500,000, so the depreciation is $13,400,000 after applying the 40% depreciation rate

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($33,500,000 - $5,500,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)

= ($28,000,000) ÷ ($4,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

Now for the first year, it would be  

= Expected miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,100,000 miles × $7 per miles

= $7,700,000

Now the book value would be

Straight-line method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  -  $560,000

= $32,940,000

Double-declining balance method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $13,400,000

= $20,100,000

Units-of-production method:

= Acquired value of a plain - accumulated depreciation  

= $33,500,000  - $7,700,000

= $25,800,000

5 0
3 years ago
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