Answer:
7.5
Step-by-step explanation:
gradient=(y1-y2)/(X1-x2)
2nd opinion that’s your answer
It’s BD because it need to be the opposite ray and this one is the opposite ray so yes this is it
Answer: a) P(x=0) = 0.0907, b) P(x≥10) = 0.7986
Step-by-step explanation: the probability mass function of a possion probability distribution is given as
P(x=r) = (e^-λ)×(λ^r) /r!
Where λ = fixed rate at which the event is occurring and each event is independent of each other = 2.4
a) P(x= at least one) = P(x≥1)
P(x≥1) = 1 - P(x<1)
But P(x<1) = P(x=0) { we can not continue to negative values because our values of x can only take positive values of integer}
Hence, P(x≥1) = 1 - P(x=0)
P(x=0) = e^-2.4 * 2.4^0/(0!)
P(x=0) = 0.0907×1/1
P(x=0) = 0.0907
b) if the average number of hits in 1 minutes is 2.4 then for 5 minutes we have 2.4×5 = 12.
Hence λ = 12.
P(x= at least 10) =P(x≥10) = 1 - P(x≤9)
P(x≤9) will be gotten using a cumulative possion probability distribution table whose area is to the left of the distribution.
From the table P(x≤9) = 0.2014.
P(x≥10) = 1 - 0.20140
P(x≥10) = 0.7986
A ratio equivalent to 3/20 can be 6/40 or even 9/60
