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wolverine [178]
3 years ago
11

The cost of goods sold includes $1,200,000 of fixed manufacturing overhead; the operating expenses include $100,000 of fixed mar

keting expenses. A special order offering to buy 50,000 units for $7.50 per unit has been made to Magna. Fortunately, there will be no additional operating expenses associated with the order and Magna has sufficient capacity to handle the order. How much will operate profits be increased if Magna accepts the special order?
Business
1 answer:
Cerrena [4.2K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is $100,000.

Explanation:

Following is the information provided:

Sales @$10 per unit                                  $4,000,000

Cost of goods @$8 per unit                    ($3,200,000)

Operating cost @$0.75 per unit             <u>  ($300,000)  </u>

Profit for the year                                     <u>   $500,000  </u>

Now the company has to calculate variable costs that are relevant here. The variable cost included in cost of goods sold is:

Variable costs per unit = (Cost of goods sold - Fixed Costs included in Cost of goods) / Units Sold

The units sold can be calculated by dividing Sales with selling price per unit. Which is:

Number of units sold = $4,000,000 / $10 per unit = 400,000 Units

Now putting values in the above equation, we have:

Variable costs = ($3,200,000 - $1,200,000) / 400,000  = $5 per unit

Other variable operating costs per unit will also be calculated as it is also a variable cost here. Because the variable operating cost per unit is relevant here for decision making, it would be calculated as under:

Variable operating cost per unit = (Operating Cost - Fixed cost included) / Number of units sold

By putting values, we have:

Variable operating cost per unit = ($300,000 - $100,000) / 400,000 units

= $0.5 per unit

Now we will calculate Net benefits arising from this order. The relevant costs are variable costs and relevant revenues are at the rate $7.5 per unit.

Cost - Benefit analysis:

Savings from sales = 50,000 units * $7.5 per unit =                     $375,000

Variable cost = 50,000 units * $5 per unit =                                 ($250,000)

Variable operating cost per unit = 50,000 units * $0.5 per unit=<u> (</u><u>$25,000)</u>

Net Saving / (Loss)                                                                           $100,000

So the net gain from this opportunity will be $100,000.

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No, it depends on the company.
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3 years ago
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Gilmore, Inc., had equity of $145,000 at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year, the company had total assets of $210
kkurt [141]

Answer:

a). Internal growth rate of the company=12.02%

b). Internal growth rate for beginning of period assets=14.71%

c). Internal growth rate for end of period total assets=10.16%

Explanation:

a). The internal growth rate of the company can be expressed as shown;

IGR=ROA×DR

where;

IGR=internal growth rate

ROA=return on asset=Net income/Total average assets

DR=dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)

In our case;

Return on asset=Net income/total average assets

Net income=$27,000

Total average assets=(Assets at the beginning of the year+assets at the end of the year)/2

Total average assets=(145,000+210,000)/2=$177,500

Return on asset=(27,000/177,500)×100=15.21%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=15.21%×0.79=12.0159%

Internal growth rate of the company=12.02%

b). Internal growth rate for beginning assets

Return on asset=Net income/total assets at the beginning of the year

Net income=$27,000

Total assets at the beginning of the year=145,000

Return on asset=(27,000/145,000)×100=18.62%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=18.62%×0.79=14.71%

Internal growth rate for beginning of period assets=14.71%

c). Internal growth rate for end of period total assets

Return on asset=Net income/total assets at the beginning of the year

Net income=$27,000

Total assets at the end of the year=210,000

Return on asset=(27,000/210,000)×100=12.86%

Dividend ratio=1-(dividend payment/net income)=1-(5,800/27,000)

Dividend ratio=1-0.21=0.79

Internal growth rate=return on asset×dividend ratio

Internal growth rate=12.86%×0.79=10.16%

Internal growth rate for end of period total assets=10.16%

8 0
3 years ago
In one hour, the United States can produce 25 tons of steel or 250 automobiles. In one hour, Japan can produce 30 tons of steel
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

For USA

Opportunity cost of 1 ton of steel = 250 / 25 = 10 automobiles

opportunity cost of 1 auto mobile = 25 / 250 = 0.1 ton of steel

For Japan

Opportunity cost of 1 ton of steel = 275 / 30 = 9.17 automobiles

opportunity cost of 1 auto mobile = 30 / 275 = 0.109 ton of steel

Japan will produce steel and US will produce automobile

option D is correct answer

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
The Restaurant Group manufactures the bags of frozen French fries used at its franchised restaurants. Last​ week, purchased and
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

Explanation:

The question was missing the actual amount of potatoes used and their actual price = 98,000 pounds at $0.85 per pound:

1. Determine the direct material price and quantity variances.

direct materials price variance = AQ x (AP - SP) = 98,000 x ($0.85 - $1) = $14,700 favorable

direct material quantity variance =  SP x (AQ - SQ) = $1 x (98,000 - 95,000) = $3,000 unfavorable

2. Think of a plausible explanation for the variances found in Requirement 1

Since the actual price of potatoes was less than the standard price, the price variance was favorable. But since the actual quantity used was more than the standard quantity, the quantity variance was unfavorable.

3. Determine the direct labor rate and efficiency variances.

direct labor rate variance = AH x (AR - SR) = 2,100 x ($12.45 - $12.15) = $630 unfavorable

direct labor efficiency variance = SR x (AH - SH) = $14.15 x (2,100 - 2,000) = $1,415 unfavorable

4. Could the explanation for the labor variances be tied to the material's variances?

Probably the labor efficiency variance since more materials had to be processed, but the labor rate variance is completely independent from the materials variances.

8 0
4 years ago
Mary signed up and paid $600 for a 6 month ceramics course on June 1st with Choplet Ceramics. As of August 1st, Choplet’s accoun
inessss [21]

Answer:

$200 of revenue, $400 of deferred revenue

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the entry on August 1 is shown below:

Unearned revenue A/c Dr $200

         To Revenue $200

(Being the two-month revenue is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Six-month revenue × number of months ÷ total number of months

= $600 × 2 months ÷ 6 months  

= $200

The two months is calculated from June 1 to August 1  

The remaining balance would be transferred to the deferred revenue account

= $600 - $200

= $400

4 0
3 years ago
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