I believe the correct answers are:
<span>UV = 14 ft and m∠TUV = 45°</span>
<span>ST = 20 ft, UV = 14 ft, and m∠UST = 98°
Or, in other words, Options A and D.
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Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability
- The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
- The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
- The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>
From the question,
- Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
- 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective
From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two
So, the probability is:
p = 23/30
p = 0.767
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>
From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none
So, the probability is:
p = 0/30
p = 0
Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>
The probability of hitting a headpin is:
p = 90%
The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:
P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)
So, we have:
P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1
P(4) = 0.3281
Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281
Read more about probabilities at:
brainly.com/question/25870256
Answer:
-2 and -7
Step-by-step explanation:
This problem is about using the Factoring X.
Two numbers will multiply to the number placed at the top. These same two numbers will add to the value placed on the bottom.
Let's look at the factors of 14.
1 • 14 = 14
2 • 7 = 14
Now let's look at their sums.
1 + 14 = 15
2 + 7 = 9
We can see that 2 and 7 multiply to 14 and add to 9.
However, we need them to add to -9.
Note that two negative numbers multiplied will become positive.
-2 • - 7 = 14
Now let's look at their sum.
-2 + (-7)
Simplify the negative.
-2 - 7 = -9
We can see that -2 and -7 multiply to 14 and add to -9.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
you didnt attach the picture or assignment