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Andrej [43]
3 years ago
9

Turnbull Co. is considering a project that requires an initial investment of $1,708,000. The firm will raise the $1,708,000 in c

apital by issuing $750,000 of debt at a before-tax cost of 8.7%, $78,000 of preferred stock at a cost of 9.9%, and $880,000 of equity at a cost of 13.2%. The firm faces a tax rate of 25%. What will be the WACC for this project
Business
1 answer:
exis [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The weighted cost of capital for the project which is also the project discount rate is 10.12%

Explanation:

WACC=Ke*E/V+Kd*D/V*(1-t)+Kp*P/V

Ke is the cost of equity of 13.2%

Kd is the cost of debt of 8.7%

Kp is the cost of preferred stock of 9.9%

E is the market value of equity raised of $880,000

D is the market value of debt issued of $750,000

P is the amount of preferred stock sold to investors of $78,000

V is the sum of the market values above=$880,000+$750,000+$78,000=$1708000

WACC=(13.2%*880,000/1708,000)+(8.7%*750,000/1708,000*(1-0.25))+(9.9%*78,000/1708000)=10.12%

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As a consultant to Basso Inc., you have been provided with the following data: D1 = $0.67; P0 = $27.50; and g = 8.00% (constant)
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

Cost of common from reinvested earnings  = 10.44 %

so correct option is c. 10.44%

Explanation:

given data

D1 = $0.67

Po = $27.50

g = 8.00%

to find out

cost of common from reinvested earnings based on the DCF approach

solution

we get here Cost of common from reinvested earnings that is express a s

Cost of common from reinvested earnings  = \frac{D1}{Po} + g   ............1

put here value we get

Cost of common from reinvested earnings  = \frac{0.67}{27.50} + 8%

Cost of common from reinvested earnings  = 10.44 %

so correct option is c. 10.44%

5 0
4 years ago
If short-run marginal cost and average variable cost curves for a competitive firm are given by SMC = 2 + 4Q, and AVC = 2 + 2Q,
sukhopar [10]

Answer:

units of output  = 2 units

fixed cost = 8

Explanation:

given data

SMC = 2 + 4Q

AVC = 2 + 2Q

to find out

how many units of output will it produce at a market price and what level of fixed cost will this firm earn zero economic profit

solution

we know here that  under perfect competition

so at the equilibrium here Price (P)  will be = MC

P = MC = 10

and

SMC = 2 + 4Q ,

P = 2 + 4Q

10 = 2 + 4Q

Q = 2 units

and

at zero economic profit we get

TR = TC    

TR = P × Q

TR = 10 × 2

TR = 20

so

TC = TFC + TVC

20 = TFC + 12    

TFC  = 8

because here [ TVC = AVC × Q ]

[ TVC = (2 + 2 × 2) × 2 ]  

[ TVC = 12 ]

8 0
4 years ago
One of the advantages associated with radio as an advertising medium is that it has a long exposure time. has a perishable messa
kiruha [24]

Answer:allows ads to be placed quickly

Explanation:

Radio advert might seems like not really in use but when adverts are placed it always hit targeted customers and mainly the adverts are placed immediately without delay once the necessary process has been completed.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Holmes Company's currently outstanding bonds have a 9% coupon and a 12% yield to maturity. Holmes believes it could issue ne
Ivan

Answer:

7.20%

Explanation:

Given that

Coupon rate = 9%

Yield to maturity = 12%

And marginal tax rate is 40%

So by considering the above information, the after tax cost of debts is

= Yield to maturity × (1 - tax rate)

= 12% × (1 - 0.40)

= 7.20%

After considering the tax rate and then multiplying with the yield to maturity we can get the after tax cost of debt

We ignored the coupon rate

8 0
3 years ago
A stock price with no dividends is $50 and the strike price of a 1-year European put option is $54. The risk-free rate is 5% (co
Murljashka [212]

Answer:

Lower Bound (Minimum Value) of Put Option = Max. of ( 0 , S * E-rt - C) (In Bold is PV of S)

where, C = Spot Price / Current Price , S = Exercise Price/ Strike Price, Rf= Risk free rate , t is tenure in pa, E is Exponential

= Max. of (0, 30 * E-rt - 35)

= max. of (0, 28.5 - 35) = Max of (0, -6.5)

Thus 0 is the Minimum Bound.

At below 0 say -0.1 (Impracticle Put Buyer will never receive OP)

At Above 0 say 0.1; Gain/ Loss = PV of 30 -35 - OP =28.85 -35 - 0.1 = -6.25 Loss i.e No Arbitrage Opportunity.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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