Given the position function <em>s(t)</em>, you can get the acceleration function by differentiating <em>s</em> twice:
velocity = <em>s'(t)</em> = -5 sin(<em>t </em>) + 3 cos(3<em>t</em> )
acceleration = <em>s''(t)</em> = -5 cos(<em>t</em> ) - 9 sin(3<em>t</em> )
Then when <em>t</em> = <em>π</em>, the particle's acceleration is
<em>s''(π)</em> = -5 cos(<em>π</em>) - 9 sin(3<em>π</em>)
… = -5 • (-1) - 9 • 0 = 5
Answer:
A, B, E
Step-by-step explanation:
The attachment shows a graph of the function. It tends to infinity for x going to infinity in either direction. (A, B are true)
The right-side piece is cubic, not quadratic.
The U-shape tells you the function is decreasing on the left side.
The two function definitions have the same value at x=2, so the function has no discontinuities. It is continuous. (E is true)
Answer:
V≈628.32
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: 36.576 meters.
Step-by-step explanation:
In 40 yd there are 36.576 m.
Which is the same to say that 40 yards is 36.576 meters.
* <em>Hopefully this helps:) Mark me the brainliest:)!!!</em>
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Answer:
0.59 cents
Step-by-step explanation:
To find how much he paid for 1 pound, you divide $19.20 by 2 = $9.60
Then you divide $9.60 by 16(ounces) = $0.59 cents (or $.0.60, rounded, but is closest to that answer)
