Answer:
$20,700
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Net Income = $25,100
Cash Provided by Operations = $32,500
Cash Sales = $64,600
Capital Expenditures = $9,600
Dividends Paid = $2,200
Now,
Swifty’ Free cash flow
= Cash Provided by Operations - Capital Expenditures - Dividends Paid
Thus,
Swifty’ Free cash flow = $32,500 - $9,600 - $2,200
or
Swifty’ Free cash flow = $20,700
Answer:
According to this situation, we assume that firm F is the only producer of product X.
Explanation:
A perfect replacement is a condition in which two items are considered equal. Great replacements are goods and you can't build a brand whereby consumers like the commodity.
Except for a market price, optimal substitution suppliers must have no impact on the quality.
- Therefore, in this situation product Y's price rises, so people shift for product X.
- In results, firm F had to increase his supply which shows that firm F is the only producer of product X in the industry.
Answer:
a-1. The present value of Plan 1 = $93.08
a-2. The deal 2 which involves paying immediately adn taking the 10% discount is better.
Explanation:
a-1.
The interest rate of 5% is taken as the discount rate to convert future cash flows into the present value.
The First payment plan with installments has a present value of,
Present Value-Plan 1 = 25 + 25/1.05 + 25/1.05² + 25/1.05³ = $93.08
a-2.
The first plan will cost $93.08 in the present value.
The second plan will involve immediate payment and a discount of 10%vwhch makes the present value of plan 2 as $90 (100 - (100*0.1)).
Thus, the second deal or deal involving immediate payment and taking the discount is better.
Answer:
The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.
Explanation:
Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.
As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.
Thus, (III) is the correct answer.
