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Nuetrik [128]
2 years ago
8

Katie has 4 grape candies and 3 cherry candies

Mathematics
2 answers:
nadya68 [22]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

She now has 7 candies

Step-by-step explanation:

balu736 [363]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4+3= 7

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
What is the value of cos(tan-1(0))?<br><br> –1<br> 0<br> 1<br> StartFraction pi Over 2 EndFraction
djyliett [7]

Answer:

answer is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

just did test on edge

4 0
3 years ago
an angles measure is 6 degrees more than 3 times the measure of its complwment. find the measure of the angles.
irina1246 [14]

Answer:

The angles are 22.5 and 67.5.

Step-by-step explanation:

A complement is the angle that when added to the given angle gives 90 degrees.

Therefore, the angle x is 3 times larger than its complement.

This means that x is 3/4 of 90 degrees and complement is 1/4 of 90 degrees.

Therefore, the angles are 22.5 and 67.5.

3 0
2 years ago
What is the experimental probability that both coins land on the same side on Isidro’s next toss
Musya8 [376]

Answer:

1/2, or 0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 ways that 2 coins can fall...

Both heads (this satisfies our situation)

1st coin heads, 2nd coin tails

1st coin tails, 2nd coin heads

Both tails (this satisfies our situation)

We have 2 out of 4 ways to satisfy this situation, so our experimental probability is

P = 2/4 which reduces to

 P = 1/2 , or 0.5 as a decimal

3 0
3 years ago
Solve the following equation by combining like terms:<br> x+x+2+3x-6= 31<br> X=
Vesnalui [34]

Answer:

X= 7

Step-by-step explanation:

x+x+2+3x-6=31 Combine x's

2x+2+3x-6=31 Continue to combine x's

5x+2-6=31  Combine whole numbers

5x-4=31  Add 4 to both sides

5x=35 Divide by 5

x=7

4 0
2 years ago
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
2 years ago
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