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zhannawk [14.2K]
3 years ago
5

A firm has sales of $1.8 million, and 20 percent of the sales are for cash. The year-end accounts receivable balance is $225,000

. What is the average collection period? (Use a 360-day year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answer to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Juliette [100K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The average collection period is 56.25 days

Explanation:

The average collection period is the number of days' sales in receivables and calculated by using following formula:

The number of days' sales in receivables = 360/Accounts receivable turnover ratio

Accounts Receivable Turnover = Net Credit Sales/Accounts Receivable

Net Credit sales = Total Sales - the sales are for cash = $1,800,000 - 20% x $1,800,000 = $1,440,000

Accounts Receivable Turnover = $1,440,000/$225,000 = 6.4 times

The number of days' sales in receivables = 360/6.4 = 56.25 days

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handwritten thank-you note

Explanation:

Professional etiquette can be regarded as ways of being able to live comfortably when with people and making them comfortable when they are arround you. They are general

guidelines as well as behavior that are needed in professional setting. It should be noted that Professional etiquette suggests you should send a

handwritten thank-you note to each person who agrees to meet with you in support of your career exploration.

5 0
3 years ago
Beats Electronics has been able to outperform Audio-Technica, Bose, JBL, Skullcandy, Sennheiser, and Sony in the high-end, premi
Tju [1.3M]

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<u>Explanation</u>:

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5 0
3 years ago
ECON Good morning can someone answer this please asap
dusya [7]
The answer is B because both have access to capital that competitive markets wouldn’t give them because they dominate the market place and drive out competitors
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3 years ago
If markets are efficient, what should be the correlation coefficient between stock returns for two nonoverlapping time periods?
S_A_V [24]

Answer: Zero

Explanation:

The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.

An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.

7 0
3 years ago
A company had net income of $200,000 and paid dividends to common stockholders of $50,000 in 2022. The weighted average number o
likoan [24]

Answer:

25 percent.

Explanation:

Given that,

Net Income =$200,000

Paid dividends to common stockholders = $50,000

Weighted average number of shares outstanding in 2022 = 2,000 shares

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= (Dividend paid to Common Stockholders ÷ Net Income) × 100

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= 0.25 × 100

= 25%

Therefore, the company’s payout ratio for 2022 is 25 percent.

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3 years ago
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