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Alenkasestr [34]
3 years ago
9

A company had net income of $200,000 and paid dividends to common stockholders of $50,000 in 2022. The weighted average number o

f shares outstanding in 2022 was 2,000 shares. The company’s common stock is selling for $80 per share on the New York Stock Exchange. The company’s payout ratio for 2022 is ________ percent.
Business
1 answer:
likoan [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

25 percent.

Explanation:

Given that,

Net Income =$200,000

Paid dividends to common stockholders = $50,000

Weighted average number of shares outstanding in 2022 = 2,000 shares

Selling price of common stock = $80 per share

Dividend pay-out ratio:

= (Dividend paid to Common Stockholders ÷ Net Income) × 100

= ($50,000 ÷ $200,000) × 100

= 0.25 × 100

= 25%

Therefore, the company’s payout ratio for 2022 is 25 percent.

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Products, then producers make__
denpristay [2]
Mabye this will help you

5 0
3 years ago
Jay sold three items of business equipment for a total of $300,000. None of the equipment was appraised to determine its value.
olasank [31]

Answer:

Consider the following calculations

Explanation:

Step 1. Given information.

Asset        Cost        Adjusted Basis

--------------------------------------------------

Skidder   230,000      40,000

Driller       120,000      60,000  

Platform  620,000        0

-------------------------------------------------

Total         970,000      100,000

Step 2. Formulas needed to solve the exercise.

Allocation for each asset =  value sold * (adjusted basis / total)

Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount

Step 3. Calculation and Step 4. Solution.

Sales price is allocated on the basis of adjusted value.

  • Skidder = 300.000 * 40.000/100.000 = 120.000

  • Driller = 300.000*60.000/100.000 = 180.000

  • Platform = 300.000*0/100.000 = 0

Gain on sale = Sales price - Adjusted basis amount

                        = 300.000 - (40.000 + 60.000 + 0)

                        = 200.000

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following variances are most similar with respect to the manner in which they are calculated? Multiple Choice Labor
ollegr [7]

Answer:

Materials quantity variance and labor efficiency variance.

Explanation:

Material quantity variance is defined as the difference that exists between the actual amount of a material that is used in production and the expected amount to be used. It measures the efficiency with which a raw material is converted into product.

MQV is calculated by multiplying standard price of material by difference between standard quantity and actual quantity.

Labour efficienct rate on the other hand measure efficiency of using labour.

It is calculated by multiplying standard labour rate with difference between standard labour amount and actual labour amount.

3 0
3 years ago
Eva, the owner of eva's second time around wedding dresses, currently has five dresses to be altered, shown in the order in whic
AlladinOne [14]
The correct answer is 2.2 hours.

I<span>f Eva uses the earliest due date priority rule, the order of the dresses will be as follows: W (1 hour processing time, 1 hour due); Y (2 hrs processing time, 3 hrs due); V (3 hrs processing time, 5 hrs due); Z (5 hrs processing time, 7 hrs due); X (4 hrs processing time, 9 hrs due).</span> 

It's easier to do the next step using real numbers. For example, if it's 11am now and W is due in 1 hour, then W is due at noon. If Y is due in 3 hours, then Y is due at 2pm, etc. Then, you need to use the processing time to see how long it will take to make the dresses. For example, since W takes one hour to process, it will be done by noon, its due date. 

This means that W and Y will be altered on time, V will be 1 hour late, Z will be 4 hours late, and X will be 6 hours late. To find the average tardiness, add these extra hours (1+4+6) = 11, and divide by the total number of dresses (even the ones that weren't late) 5: 11/5 = 2.2 hours.
8 0
3 years ago
Based on the following information, what is the balance on the financial account? Exports of goods and services = $5 billion Imp
Olegator [25]

Answer:

3 billion

Explanation:

the financial account will be the cash inflow less the cash outflow:

Increase in foreign holdings of assets in the United States = $4 billion Increase in U.S. holdings of assets in foreign countries = -$1 billion

4 billion of dollar enter the US from aboard while 1 billion left the country with destination aboard in total the financial account will be:

4 billion - 1 billion = 3 billion

4 0
3 years ago
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