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4 years ago

Subtract. 4/5 - 1/4 = plz hellllllllllp

Mathematics

1 answer:

Vladimir79 [104]4 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Hello

=4/5-1/4

Taking LCM,

LCM=20

=4*4/5*4 - 1*5/4*5

=16/20-5/20

=11/20

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How long does it take for a $5000 investment to turn into a $7000 investment if it is compounded

allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

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3 years ago

To best estimate the quotient in scientific notation. what number should replace m?

fredd [130]

Answer:

m = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

Given:

6.33 x 10 ⁹ / 1.79 x 10⁵ ≈ 3 x $10^{m}$

To find:

To best estimate the quotient in scientific notation. what number should replace m?

Solution:

The equation is:

6.33 x 10 ⁹ / 1.79 x 10⁵ = 3 x $10^{m}$

Let x = 9 and y = 5 then the above equation becomes:

6.33 x $10^{x}$ / 1.79 x $10^{y}$ = 3 x $10^{m}$

Since we know that the exponent property is:

quotient $quotient \frac{z^{x} }{z^{y} } = quotient z^{x-y}$

Now converting the given equation in the form above we get:

6.33 / 1.79 x $10^{x-y}$

6.33 / 1.79 x $10^{9-5}$

Now the quotient is 6.33/1.79 ≈ 3.536313

quotient x $10^{9-5}$

3.536313 x $10^{9-5}$

Since 9-5 = 4 So

3.536313 x $10^{4}$

3.536 x $10^{4}$

Hence

6.33 x 10 ⁹ / 1.79 x 10⁵ ≈ 3.5 x $10^{4}$

Hence m = 4

7 0

3 years ago

11. Henry had a batting average of

marin [14]

The probability of getting exactly 8 hits in his next 20 at-bats is 0.153 (Round off to the nearest thousandth.).

The correct option is (c)

<h3>What is Binomial distribution?</h3>

Binomial distribution can be thought of as simply the probability of a SUCCESS or FAILURE outcome in an experiment or survey that is repeated multiple times.

Probability= $C^{n}_r\; p^{r} \;q^{(n-r)$

where, n= number of trial,

r= number of success desire,

p= probability of success,

q= probability of Failure

probability of success = 0.34

To find the probability of winning exactly 8 hits in next 20 at-bats we find

dbinom (8, 20, 0.34)

Since p= 0.34

q= 1-p

= 1-0.34

= 0.66

n= 20, r=8

Using Binomial Distribution, we get

Probability= $C^{n}_r\; p^{r} \;q^{(n-r)$

= $\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!} p^{r}\; q^{(n-r)}$

= $\frac{20!}{8!(20-8)!} (0.34)^{8}\; (0.66)^{(20-8)}$

= 125970 x 0.0001785794 x 0.00683168

= 0.1536830

≈ 0.153 (Round off to the nearest thousandth.)

Hence, the probability of getting exactly 8 hits in his next 20 at-bats is 0.153.

Learn more about Binomial Distribution here:

brainly.com/question/16934457

#SPJ1

5 0

2 years ago

Help meeeeeee plz I need helppppppppppplp

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4 years ago

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

In order to solve this question we will need to know that $c^{2} = a^{2} + b^{2}$ (were c is the length of the hypotenuse (the diagonal line) of a right angle triangle, and a and b are the legs (the sides that form a right angle). So them means that.....