WILL MARK BRAINLIEST<br><br> What is the value of x?

Three boys brought 8 cricket cards so that they can share a complete collection. Noel paid for 1/2 of the collection, Whitley an

Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

Whitley owns 2 of the cards

Step-by-step explanation:

In math "of" means to multiply. So Whitley owns 1/4 the collection meaning we multiply 1/4 by 8 to find how how many he owns. When multiplying fractions multiply the numerators together and the denominators together. We can give 8 a denominator of 1 since anything divided by 1 is just itself. So

1/4 times 8/1=8/4=2

I hope this helps and please don't hesitate to ask if there is anything still unclear!

3 0

3 years ago

Sasha borrows $100 at 12% simple interest, to be paid back in one year . How much does she pay back

amid [387]

Answer:

$289 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

$289 I think

sorry if I am wrong

8 0

3 years ago

A soon as Jack receives his monthly paycheck, he automatically sets aside an amount in his mind that he can spend on eating out.

DiKsa [7]

Answer:

the answer is a

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Two trains leave stations 560 miles apart at the same time and travel toward each other. One train travels at 90 miles per hour

lana [24]

Answer: the two trains will meet in 2.8 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

Speed of train A = 90mph

Speed of train B = 110 mph

Since both trains are travelling towards each other , their effective speed will be= 90 mph + 110mph= 200mph

Step 2

we know that Speed = distance / time

therefore Time = Distance / speed

Distance = 560 miles

Speed = 200 mph

Time = 560miles / 200mph

2.8 hours

5 0

3 years ago

with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And using the complement rule we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

7 0

3 years ago

WILL MARK BRAINLIEST What is the value of x?