4-6 is -2, so that means that we now have 43•-2=45•4p so we then subtract 45 from both sides, leaving us with -2•-2=4p, now we multiply -2•-2 and get 4, then divide by 4 to get p=1
Answer:
100,000
Step-by-step explanation:
B is correct hope this helps
Before we start to answer, let's get our formulas put in.
4 qt = 1 gal.
1 c = 0.5pt (or 2 cups to 1 pt)
Now that we've gotten the formulas out of the way, let's plug in our numbers.
We have 5 qt.
Since we have 4 qt per gal, let's subtract 4 from 5.
5 - 4 = 1. We have 1 gal (due to having a whole 4) and 1 qt left over.
5 qt = 1 gal 1 qt.
We have 7 c.
Since we have 2 cups per pint, let's divide 7 by 2.
7 / 2 = 3.5
We have 3.5 Pt.
7c = 3.5pt
Your answers are:
1 gal 1 qt
3.5pt
I hope this helps!
56/4 divided by 2 » (56/4) ÷ 2 » 14 ÷ 2 = 7
