Answer:
circumference of a circle formula is C=2*pi*r
Step-by-step explanation:
then
141.3 = 2*pi * r
solve for r
141.3/ (2*pi) = r
22.48859 feet
diameter is 2*r
2*22.48859= 44.9771 feet
divide by 3 because there are 3 feet in one yard
44.9771/3= 14.99239 yds.
it doesn't say to round off, but I would call this 15 yds.
Diameter is 15 yards ± .008 yds That's just about 1/4 of an inch
cost of pencil = x = 0.07
and cost of eraser = y = 0.03
Step-by-step explanation:
let cost of pencil = x
and cost of eraser = y
So, we have equations:
Solving both equations to find value of x and y
Let:
Multiply eq(1) with 4 and eq(2) with 3 and subtract
Putting value of x in equation 1:
So, x= 0.07 and y = 0.03
cost of pencil = x = 0.07
and cost of eraser = y = 0.03
Keywords: System of equations
Learn more about system of equations at:
#learnwithBrainly
Answer
1)<2) please put 5 stars
Step-by-step explanation
First you need to find the GCF of the donominators which are 6 and 7. The GCF is 42.
6*x=42. x=7 5*7=35. -35/42 is the first fraction.
7*y=42 y=6 3*6=18. -18/42 is the second fraction.
-35/42 would be bigger but since it is negative, it is smaller.
The answer to your question is obviously bdjanabjmamajdhf jsjsju hshs2+2is4-thats3quickmafsna. duh....
Answer:
So interval notation is with ( and [ where ( is exclusive and [ is inclusive.
Like (1,2) is between 1 and 2 exclusive. [1,2] is between 1 and 2 inclusive. (1,2] is between 1 and 2, 1 exclusive 2 inclusive.
at the point (6,0) you see that the graph goes from above 0 to below 0 (from positive to negative)
The values are positive when x is less than 6 and negative when x is greater than 6.
so the positive interval is
(-infinity, 6)
and with inifinity you always use exclusive
It's that because everything from all the way to the left (-infinity) to 6, is above the x-axis, which means it's positive
using this logic can you do the negative interval?
