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Setler [38]
3 years ago
11

BRAINLY FOR THE FASTEST WITH GOOD EXPLANATIONS

Mathematics
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
4 0

So, when we're tasked with things like this, rewriting everything in terms of sine and cosine and combining fractions often trivializes things, so doing just that gives us:

\frac{\frac{1}{\cos{x}}-\frac{1}{\sin{x}}}{\frac{\cos{x}}{\sin{x}}-1}= \\\frac{\frac{=(\cos{x}-\sin{x})}{\cos{x}\sin{x}}}{\frac{\cos{x}}{\sin{x}}-\frac{\sin{x}}{\sin{x}}}=\\\frac{-(\cos{x}-\sin{x})}{\cos{x}\sin{x}}*\frac{\sin{x}}{\cos{x}-\sin{x}}=\\-\frac{1}{\cos{x}}

So out expression is 1/cos(x).

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Answer:

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3 years ago
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1-39 ODD:
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4 years ago
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denis23 [38]

Split up the interval [0, 3] into 6 subintervals,

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Then the value of the integral is approximately

\displaystyle=\frac38\cdot\frac{6\cdot7\cdot13}6-2\cdot\frac{6\cdot7}2=\boxed{-\frac{63}8}=-7.875

Compare to the exact value of the integral, -9.

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blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

option C I think

Step-by-step explanation:

I remember learning about this last year

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