Answer:
a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt
Explanation:
Missing options are:
a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt
b.) did not change the after-tax cost of debt
c.) increased the value of the deduction for interest expense
d.) decreased the after-tax cost of debt
The after tax cost of debt is calculated by multiplying the debt's principal x interest rate x (1 - tax rate). If the tax rate decreases, the after tax cost of debt increases. e.g.
$1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate was 40% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 40%) = $36 or 3.6%
now, $1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate is 21% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 21%) = $47.40 or 4.74%
Answer:
The correct answer is 777.169.56.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Payment per year (PMT) = $3,000
Time (N) = 40 years
Rate of interest (R)= 8%
So, the future value of the following can be calculated by using the following formula:
Future value = PMT × 
Now, put the value of the following in the formula. then,
= 3,000 × 
= 3,000 × 259.0565
= 777,169.56
Hence, the value in the account after 40 years will be 777,169.56.
The discount lost account is used under the net method for inventory.
<h3><u>
What is discount?</u></h3>
- When a security is trading for less than its intrinsic or basic value, it is said to be trading at a discount in the world of finance and investment.
- When a bond's price is trading below its par value, or face value, in the fixed-income market, a discount is present.
- The extent of the discount is equal to the difference between the price paid for a security and its par value.
- Bonds may trade at a discount for a variety of reasons, such as rising interest rates, problems with the underlying company's credit, or riskiness when compared to comparable bonds.
The discount rate, an interest rate used to calculate the time worth of money, should not be confused with a discount.
Know more about discount with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/3541148
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